Code of Federal Regulations (alpha)

CFR /  Title 14  /  Part 121  /  Sec. 121.1500 SFAR No. 111--Lavatory Oxygen Systems.

(a) Applicability. This SFAR applies to the following persons:

(1) All operators of transport category airplanes that are required to comply with AD 2012-11-09, but only for airplanes on which the actions required by that AD have not been accomplished.

(2) Applicants for airworthiness certificates.

(3) Holders of production certificates.

(4) Applicants for type certificates, including changes to type certificates.

(b) Regulatory relief. Except as noted in paragraph (d) of this section and contrary provisions of 14 CFR part 21, and 14 CFR 25.1447, 119.51, 121.329, 121.333 and 129.13, notwithstanding, for the duration of this SFAR:

(1) A person described in paragraph (a) of this section may conduct flight operations and add airplanes to operations specifications with disabled lavatory oxygen systems, modified in accordance with FAA Airworthiness Directive 2011-04-09, subject to the following limitations:

(i) This relief is limited to regulatory compliance of lavatory oxygen systems.

(ii) Within 30 days of March 29, 2013, all oxygen masks must be removed from affected lavatories, and the mask stowage location must be reclosed.

(iii) Within 60 days of March 29, 2013 each affected operator must verify that crew emergency procedures specifically include a visual check of the lavatory as a priority when checking the cabin following any event where oxygen masks were deployed in the cabin.

(2) An applicant for an airworthiness certificate may obtain an airworthiness certificate for airplanes to be operated by a person described in paragraph (a) of this section, although the airplane lavatory oxygen system is disabled.

(3) A holder of a production certificate may apply for an airworthiness certificate or approval for airplanes to be operated by a person described in paragraph (a) of this section.

(4) An applicant for a type certificate or change to a type certificate may obtain a design approval without showing compliance with Sec. 25.1447(c)(1) of this chapter for lavatory oxygen systems, in accordance with this SFAR.

(5) Each person covered by paragraph (a) of this section may inform passengers that the lavatories are not equipped with supplemental oxygen.

(c) Return to service documentation. When a person described in paragraph (a) of this section has modified airplanes as required by Airworthiness Directive 2011-04-09, the affected airplanes must be returned to service with a note in the airplane maintenance records that the modification was done under the provisions of this SFAR.

(d) Expiration. This SFAR expires on September 10, 2015, except this SFAR will continue to apply to any airplane for which the FAA approves an extension of the AD compliance time for the duration of the extension. [Doc. No. FAA-2011-0186, 78 FR 5710, Jan. 28, 2013]

Sec. Appendix A to Part 121--First Aid Kits and Emergency Medical Kits

Approved first-aid kits, at least one approved emergency medical kit, and at least one approved automated external defibrillator required under Sec. 121.803 of this part must be readily accessible to the crew, stored securely, and kept free from dust, moisture, and damaging temperatures.

First-aid Kits

1. The minimum number of first aid kits required is set forth in the following table: ------------------------------------------------------------------------

No. of

No. of passenger seats first-aid

kits------------------------------------------------------------------------0-50......................................................... 151-150....................................................... 2151-250...................................................... 3More than 250................................................ 4------------------------------------------------------------------------

2. Except as provided in paragraph (3), each approved first-aid kit must contain at least the following appropriately maintained contents in the specified quantities: ------------------------------------------------------------------------

Contents Quantity------------------------------------------------------------------------Adhesive bandage compresses, 1-inch.......................... 16Antiseptic swabs............................................. 20Ammonia inhalants............................................ 10Bandage compresses, 4-inch................................... 8

Triangular bandage compresses, 40-inch....................... 5Arm splint, noninflatable.................................... 1Leg splint, noninflatable.................................... 1Roller bandage, 4-inch....................................... 4Adhesive tape, 1-inch standard roll.......................... 2Bandage scissors............................................. 1------------------------------------------------------------------------

3. Arm and leg splints which do not fit within a first-aid kit may be stowed in a readily accessible location that is as near as practicable to the kit.

Emergency Medical Kits

1. Until April 12, 2004, at least one approved emergency medical kit that must contain at least the following appropriately maintained contents in the specified quantities: ------------------------------------------------------------------------

Contents Quantity------------------------------------------------------------------------Sphygmomanometer............................ 1Stethoscope................................. 1Airways, cropharyngeal (3 sizes)............ 3Syringes (sizes necessary to administer 4

required drugs).Needles (sizes necessary to administer 6

required drugs).50% Dextrose injection, 50cc................ 1Epinephrine 1:1000, single dose ampule or 2

equivalent).Diphenhydramine HC1 injection, single dose 2

ampule or equivalent.Nitroglycerin tablets....................... 10Basic instructions for use of the drugs in 1

the kit.protective nonpermeable gloves or equivalent 1 pair------------------------------------------------------------------------

2. As of April 12, 2004, at least one approved emergency medical kit that must contain at least the following appropriately maintained contents in the specified quantities: ------------------------------------------------------------------------

Contents Quantity------------------------------------------------------------------------Sphygmonanometer............................ 1Stethoscope................................. 1Airways, oropharyngeal (3 sizes): 1 3

pediatric, 1 small adult, 1 large adult or

equivalent.Self-inflating manual resuscitation device 1:3 masks

with 3 masks (1 pediatric, 1 small adult, 1

large adult or equivalent).CPR mask (3 sizes), 1 pediatric, 1 small 3

adult, 1 large adult, or equivalent.IV Admin Set: Tubing w/ 2 Y connectors...... 1

Alcohol sponges......................... 2

Adhesive tape, 1-inch standard roll 1

adhesive.

Tape scissors........................... 1 pair

Tourniquet.............................. 1Saline solution, 500 cc..................... 1Protective nonpermeable gloves or equivalent 1 pairNeedles (2-18 ga., 2-20 ga., 2-22 ga., or 6

sizes necessary to administer required

medications).Syringes (1-5 cc, 2-10 cc, or sizes 4

necessary to administer required

medications).Analgesic, non-narcotic, tablets, 325 mg.... 4Antihistamine tablets, 25 mg................ 4Antihistamine injectable, 50 mg, (single 2

dose ampule or equivalent).Atropine, 0.5 mg, 5 cc (single dose ampule 2

or equivalent).Aspirin tablets, 325 mg..................... 4Bronchodilator, inhaled (metered dose 1

inhaler or equivalent).Dextrose, 50%/50 cc injectable, (single dose 1

ampule or equivalent).Epinephrine 1:1000, 1 cc, injectable, 2

(single dose ampule or equivalent).Epinephrine 1:10,000, 2 cc, injectable, 2

(single dose ampule or equivalent).Lidocaine, 5 cc, 20 mg/ml, injectable 2

(single dose ampule or equivalent).Nitroglycerin tablets, 0.4 mg............... 10Basic instructions for use of the drugs in 1

the kit.------------------------------------------------------------------------

3. If all of the above-listed items do not fit into one container, more than one container may be used.

Automated External Defibrillators

At least one approved automated external defibrillator, legally marketed in the United States in accordance with Food and Drug Administration requirements, that must:

1. Be stored in the passenger cabin.

2. After April 30, 2005:

(a) Have a power source that meets FAA Technical Standard Order requirements for power sources for electronic devices used in aviation as approved by the Administrator; or

(b) Have a power source that was manufactured before July 30, 2004, and been found by the FAA to be equivalent to a power source that meets the Technical Standard Order requirements of paragraph (a) of this section.

3. Be maintained in accordance with the manufacturer's specifications. [Doc. No. FAA-2000-7119, 66 FR 19044, Apr. 12, 2001, as amended by Amdt. 121-280, 69 FR 19762, Apr. 14, 2004; Amdt. 121-309, 70 FR 15196, Mar. 24, 2005]

Appendix B to Part 121--Airplane Flight Recorder Specification ----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Accuracy sensor

Parameters Range input to DFDR Sampling interval Resolution \4\

readout (per second) readout----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Time (GMT or Frame Counter) 24 Hrs............ 0.125% Per seconds).

frame). Hour.Altitude........................ -1,000 ft to max 100 to 7

aircraft. 00 ft (See Table

1, TSO-C51a).

Airspeed........................ 50 KIAS to V so, 5%, 3

%.Heading......................... 360[deg].......... 2[deg].Normal Acceleration (Vertical).. -3g to +6g........ 1% of max

range excluding

datum error of

5%.Pitch Attitude.................. 75[deg]. eq>2[deg].Roll Attitude................... 180[deg]. eq>2[deg].Radio Transmitter Keying........ On-Off (Discrete). 2[deg]. eq>2%.Thrust/Power on Each Engine..... Full Range Forward 2[deg].Trailing Edge Flap or Cockpit Full Range or Each 3[deg] or as

Pilot's Indicator.Leading Edge Flap or Cockpit Full Range or Each 3[deg] or as

Pilot's Indicator.Thrust Reverser Position........ Stowed, In .................. 1 (per 4 seconds ..................

Transit, and per engine).

Reverse

(Discrete).Ground Spoiler Position/Speed Full Range or Each 2% Unless

Higher Accuracy

Uniquely Required.Marker Beacon Passage........... Discrete.......... .................. 1................. ..................Autopilot Engagement............ Discrete.......... .................. 1................. ..................Longitudinal Acceleration....... 1g. eq>1.5% max range

excluding datum

error of 5

%.Pilot Input and/or Surface Full Range........ 2[deg] Unless

(Pitch, Roll, Yaw) \3\. Higher Accuracy

Uniquely Required.Lateral Acceleration............ 1g. eq>1.5% max range

excluding datum

error of 5

%.Pitch Trim Position............. Full Range........ 3% Unless

Higher Accuracy

Uniquely Required.Glideslope Deviation............ 400 Microamps. eq>3%.Localizer Deviation............. 400 Microamps. eq>3%.AFCS Mode and Engagement Status. Discrete.......... .................. 1................. ..................Radio Altitude.................. -20 ft to 2,500 ft 2 Ft or 3

% Whichever is

Greater Below 500

Ft and 5

% Above 500 Ft.Master Warning.................. Discrete.......... .................. 1................. ..................Main Gear Squat Switch Status... Discrete.......... .................. 1................. ..................Angle of Attack (if recorded As installed...... As installed...... 2................. 0.3% \2\

directly)..Outside Air Temperature or Total -50 [deg]C to +90 2 [deg]c.Hydraulics, Each System Low Discrete.......... .................. 0.5............... or 0.5% \2\

Pressure.Groundspeed..................... As installed...... Most Accurate 1................. 0.2% \2\

Systems Installed

(IMS Equipped

Aircraft Only).----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

If additional recording capacity is available, recording of the following parameters is recommended. The

parameters are listed in order of significance:----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Drift Angle..................... When available, As As installed...... 4................. ..................

installed.Wind Speed and Direction........ When available, As As installed...... 4................. ..................

installed.Latitude and Longitude.......... When available, As As installed...... 4................. ..................

installed.Brake pressure/Brake pedal As installed...... As installed...... 1................. ..................

position.Additional engine parameters:

EPR......................... As installed...... As installed...... 1 (per engine).... ..................

N1.......................... As installed...... As installed...... 1 (per engine).... ..................

N2.......................... As installed...... As installed...... 1 (per engine).... ..................

EGT......................... As installed...... As installed...... 1 (per engine).... ..................Throttle Lever Position......... As installed...... As installed...... 1 (per engine).... ..................Fuel Flow....................... As installed...... As installed...... 1 (per engine).... ..................TCAS:

TA.......................... As installed...... As installed...... 1................. ..................

RA.......................... As installed...... As installed...... 1................. ..................

Sensitivity level (as As installed...... As installed...... 2................. ..................

selected by crew).GPWS (ground proximity warning Discrete.......... .................. 1................. ..................

system).

Landing gear or gear selector Discrete.......... .................. 0.25 (1 per 4 ..................

position. seconds).DME 1 and 2 Distance............ 0-200 NM;......... As installed...... 0.25.............. 1 mi.Nav 1 and 2 Frequency Selection. Full range........ As installed...... 0.25.............. ..................----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------\1\ When altitude rate is recorded. Altitude rate must have sufficient resolution and sampling to permit the

derivation of altitude to 5 feet.\2\ Per cent of full range.\3\ For airplanes that can demonstrate the capability of deriving either the control input on control movement

(one from the other) for all modes of operation and flight regimes, the ``or'' applies. For airplanes with non-

mechanical control systems (fly-by-wire) the ``and'' applies. In airplanes with split surfaces, suitable

combination of inputs is acceptable in lieu of recording each surface separately.\4\ This column applies to aircraft manufactured after October 11, 1991. [Doc. No. 25530, 53 FR 26147, July 11, 1988; 53 FR 30906, Aug. 16, 1988]

Sec. Appendix C to Part 121--C-46 Nontransport Category Airplanes

Cargo Operations

(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, the engines specified in subparagraphs (1) or (2) of this section must be installed in C-46 nontransport category airplanes operated at gross weights exceeding 45,000 pounds:

(1) Pratt and Whitney R2800-51-M1 or R2800-75-M1 engines (engines converted from basic model R2800-51 or R2800-75 engines in accordance with FAA approved data) that--

(i) Conform to Engine Specification 5E-8;

(ii) Conform to the applicable portions of the operator's manual;

(iii) Comply with all the applicable airworthiness directives; and

(iv) Are equipped with high capacity oil pump drive gears in accordance with FAA approved data.

(2) Other engines found acceptable by the FAA Regional Flight Standards Division having type certification responsibility for the C-46 airplane.

(b) Upon application by an operator conducting cargo operations with nontransport category C-46 airplanes between points within the State of Alaska, the appropriate FAA Flight Standards District Office, Alaskan Region, may authorize the operation of such airplanes, between points within the State of Alaska; without compliance with paragraph (a) of this section if the operator shows that, in its area of operation, installation of the modified engines is not necessary to provide adequate cooling for single-engine operations. Such authorization and any conditions or limitations therefor is made a part of the Operations Specifications of the operator.

2. Minimum acceptable means of complying with the special airworthiness requirements. Unless otherwise authorized under Sec. 121.213, the data set forth in sections 3 through 34 of this appendix, as correlated to the C-46 nontransport category airplane, is the minimum means of compliance with the special airworthiness requirements of Sec. Sec. 121.215 through 121.281.

3. Susceptibility of material to fire. [Deleted as unnecessary]

4. Cabin interiors. C-46 crew compartments must meet all the requirements of Sec. 121.215, and, as required in Sec. 121.221, the door between the crew compartment and main cabin (cargo) compartment must be flame resistant.

5. Internal doors. Internal doors, including the crew to main cabin door, must meet all the requirements of Sec. 121.217.

6. Ventilation. Standard C-46 crew compartments meet the ventilation requirements of Sec. 121.219 if a means of ventilation for controlling the flow of air is available between the crew compartment and main cabin. The ventilation requirement may be met by use of a door between the crew compartment and main cabin. The door need not have louvers installed; however, if louvers are installed, they must be controllable.

7. Fire precautions. Compliance is required with all the provisions of Sec. 121.221.

(a) In establishing compliance with this section, the C-46 main cabin is considered as a Class A compartment if--

(1) The operator utilizes a standard system of cargo loading and tiedown that allows easy access in flight to all cargo in such compartment, and, such system is included in the appropriate portion of the operator's manual; and

(2) A cargo barrier is installed in the forward end of the main cabin cargo compartment. The barrier must--

(i) Establish the most forward location beyond which cargo cannot be carried;

(ii) Protect the components and systems of the airplane that are essential to its safe operation from cargo damage; and

(iii) Permit easy access, in flight, to cargo in the main cabin cargo compartment. The barrier may be a cargo net or a network of steel cables or other means acceptable to the Administrator which would provide equivalent protection to that of a cargo net. The barrier need not meet crash load requirements of FAR Sec. 25.561; however, it must be attached to the cargo retention fittings and provide the degree of cargo retention that is required by the operators' standard system of cargo loading and tiedown.

(b) C-46 forward and aft baggage compartments must meet, as a minimum, Class B requirements of this section or be placarded in a manner to preclude their use as cargo or baggage compartments.

8. Proof of compliance. The demonstration of compliance required by Sec. 121.223 is not required for C-46 airplanes in which--

(1) The main cabin conforms to Class A cargo compartment requirements of Sec. 121.219; and

(2) Forward and aft baggage compartments conform to Class B requirements of Sec. 121.221, or are placarded to preclude their use as cargo or baggage compartments.

9. Propeller deicing fluid. No change from the requirements of Sec. 121.225. Isopropyl alcohol is a combustible fluid within the meaning of this section.

10. Pressure cross-feed arrangements, location of fuel tanks, and fuel system lines and fittings. C-46 fuel systems which conform to all applicable Curtiss design specifications and which comply with the FAA type certification requirements are in compliance with the provisions of Sec. Sec. 121.227 through 121.231.

11. Fuel lines and fittings in designated fire zones. No change from the requirements of Sec. 121.233.

12. Fuel valves. Compliance is required with all the provisions of Sec. 121.235. Compliance can be established by showing that the fuel system conforms to all the applicable Curtiss design specifications, the FAA type certification requirements, and, in addition, has explosion-proof fuel booster pump electrical selector switches installed in lieu of the open contact type used originally.

13. Oil lines and fittings in designated fire zones. No change from the requirements of Sec. 121.237.

14. Oil valves. C-46 oil shutoff valves must conform to the requirements of Sec. 121.239. In addition, C-46 airplanes using Hamilton Standard propellers must provide, by use of stand pipes in the engine oil tanks or other approved means, a positive source of oil for feathering each propeller.

15. Oil system drains. The standard C-46 ``Y'' drains installed in the main oil inlet line for each engine meet the requirements of Sec. 121.241.

16. Engine breather line. The standard C-46 engine breather line installation meets the requirements of Sec. 121.243 if the lower breather lines actually extend to the trailing edge of the oil cooler air exit duct.

17. Firewalls and firewall construction. Compliance is required with all of the provisions of Sec. Sec. 121.245 and 121.247. The following requirements must be met in showing compliance with these sections:

(a) Engine compartment. The engine firewalls of the C-46 airplane must--

(1) Conform to type design, and all applicable airworthiness directives;

(2) Be constructed of stainless steel or approved equivalent; and

(3) Have fireproof shields over the fairleads used for the engine control cables that pass through each firewall.

(b) Combustion heater compartment. C-46 airplanes must have a combustion heater fire extinguishing system which complies with AD-49-18-1 or an FAA approved equivalent.

18. Cowling. Standard C-46 engine cowling (cowling of aluminum construction employing stainless steel exhaust shrouds) which conforms to the type design and cowling configurations which conform to the C-46 transport category requirements meet the requirements of Sec. 121.249.

19. Engine accessory section diaphragm. C-46 engine nacelles which conform to the C-46 transport category requirements meet the requirements of Sec. 121.251. As provided for in that section, a means of equivalent protection which does not require provision of a diaphragm to isolate the engine power section and exhaust system from the engine accessory compartment is the designation of the entire engine compartment forward of and including the firewall as a designated fire zone, and the installation of adequate fire detection and fire extinguishing systems which meet the requirements of Sec. 121.263 and Sec. 121.273, respectively, in such zone.

20. Powerplant fire protection. C-46 engine compartments and combustion heater compartments are considered as designated fire zones within the meaning of Sec. 121.253.

21. Flammable fluids--

(a) Engine compartment. C-46 engine compartments which conform to the type design and which comply with all applicable airworthiness directives meet the requirements of Sec. 121.255.

(b) Combustion heater compartment. C-46 combustion heater compartments which conform to type design and which meet all the requirements of AD-49-18-1 or an FAA approved equivalent meet the requirements of Sec. 121.255.

22. Shutoff means--

(a) Engine compartment. C-46 engine compartments which comply with AD-62-10-2 or FAA approved equivalent meet the requirements of Sec. 121.257 applicable to engine compartments, if, in addition, a means satisfactory to the Administrator is provided to shut off the flow of hydraulic fluid to the cowl flap cylinder in each engine nacelle. The shutoff means must be located aft of the engine firewall. The operator's manual must include, in the emergency portion, adequate instructions for proper operation of the additional shutoff means to assure correct sequential positioning of engine cowl flaps under emergency conditions. In accordance with Sec. 121.315, this positioning must also be incorporated in the emergency section of the pilot's checklist.

(b) Combustion heater compartment. C-46 heater compartments which comply with paragraph (5) of AD-49-18-1 or FAA approved equivalent meet the requirements of Sec. 121.257 applicable to heater compartments if, in addition, a shutoff valve located above the main cabin floor level is installed in the alcohol supply line or lines between the alcohol supply tank and those alcohol pumps located under the main cabin floor. If all of the alcohol pumps are located above the main cabin floor, the alcohol shutoff valve need not be installed. In complying with paragraph (5) of AD-49-18-1, a fail-safe electric fuel shutoff valve may be used in lieu of the manually operated valve.

(a) Engine compartment. C-46 engine compartments which comply with all applicable airworthiness directives, including AD-62-10-2, by using FAA approved fire-resistant lines, hoses, and end fittings, and engine compartments which meet the C-46 transport category requirements, meet the requirements of Sec. 121.259.

(b) Combustion heater compartments All lines, hoses, and end fittings, and couplings which carry fuel to the heaters and heater controls, must be of FAA approved fire-resistant construction.

(a) Enginecompartment. C-46 engine compartments meet the requirements of Sec. 121.261 if--

(1) The compartments conform to type design and comply with all applicable airworthiness directives or FAA approved equivalent; and

(2) Drain lines from supercharger case, engine-driven fuel pump, and engine-driven hydraulic pump reach into the scupper drain located in the lower cowling segment.

(b) Combustion heater compartment. C-46 heater compartments meet the requirements of Sec. 121.261 if they conform to AD-49-18-1 or FAA approved equivalent.

(a) To meet the requirements of Sec. 121.263, C-46 airplanes must have installed fire extinguishing systems to serve all designated fire zones. The fire-extinguishing systems, the quantity of extinguishing agent, and the rate of discharge shall be such as to provide a minimum of one adequate discharge for each designated fire zone. Compliance with this provision requires the installation of a separate fire extinguisher for each engine compartment. Insofar as the engine compartment is concerned, the system shall be capable of protecting the entire compartment against the various types of fires likely to occur in the compartment.

(b) Fire-extinguishing systems which conform to the C-46 transport category requirements meet the requirements set forth in paragraph (a). Furthermore, fire-extinguishing systems for combustion heater compartments which conform to the requirements of AD-49-18-1 or an FAA approved equivalent also meet the requirements in paragraph (a).

In addition, a fire-extinguishing system for C-46 airplanes meets the adequacy requirement of paragraph (a) if it provides the same or equivalent protection to that demonstrated by the CAA in tests conducted in 1941 and 1942, using a CW-20 type engine nacelle (without diaphragm). These tests were conducted at the Bureau of Standards facilities in Washington, DC, and copies of the test reports are available through the FAA Regional Engineering Offices. In this connection, the flow rates and distribution of extinguishing agent substantiated in American Airmotive Report No. 128-52-d, FAA approved February 9, 1953, provides protection equivalent to that demonstrated by the CAA in the CW-20 tests. In evaluating any C-46 fire-extinguishing system with respect to the aforementioned CW-20 tests, the Administration would require data in a narrative form, utilizing drawings or photographs to show at least the following:

Installation of containers; installation and routing of plumbing; type, number, and location of outlets or nozzles; type, total volume, and distribution of extinguishing agent; length of time required for discharging; means for thermal relief, including type and location of discharge indicators; means of discharging, e.g., mechanical cutterheads, electric cartridge, or other method; and whether a one- or two-shot system is used; and if the latter is used, means of cross-feeding or otherwise selecting distribution of extinguishing agent; and types of materials used in makeup of plumbing.

High rate discharge (HRD) systems using agents such as bromotrifluoromethane, dibrodifluoromethane and chlorobromomethane (CB), may also meet the requirements of paragraph (a).

26. Fire-extinguishing agents, Extinguishing agent container pressure relief, Extinguishing agent container compartment temperatures, and Fire-extinguishing system materials. No change from the requirements of Sec. Sec. 121.265 through 121.271.

27. Fire-detector system. Compliance with the requirements of Sec. 121.273 requires that C-46 fire detector systems conform to:

(a) AD-62-10-2 or FAA approved equivalent for engine compartments; and

(b) AD-49-18-1 or FAA approved equivalent for combustion heater compartments

28. Fire detectors. No change from the requirements of Sec. 121.275.

29. Protection of other airplane components against fire. To meet the requirements of Sec. 121.277, C-46 airplanes must--

(a) Conform to the type design and all applicable airworthiness directives; and

(b) Be modified or have operational procedures established to provide additional fire protection for the wheel well door aft of each engine compartment. Modifications may consist of improvements in sealing of the main landing gear wheel well doors. An operational procedure which is acceptable to the Agency is one requiring the landing gear control to be placed in the up position in case of in-flight engine fire. In accordance with Sec. 121.315, such procedure must be set forth in the emergency portion of the operator's emergency checklist pertaining to in-flight engine fire.

30. Control of engine rotation. C-46 propeller feathering systems which conform to the type design and all applicable airworthiness directives meet the requirements of Sec. 121.279.

31. Fuel system independence. C-46 fuel systems which conform to the type design and all applicable airworthiness directives meet the requirements of Sec. 121.281.

32. Induction system ice prevention. The C-46 carburetor anti-icing system which conforms to the type design and all applicable airworthiness directives meets the requirements of Sec. 121.283.

33. Carriage of cargo in passenger compartments. Section 121.285 is not applicable to nontransport category C-46 cargo airplanes.

34. Carriage of cargo in cargo compartments. A standard cargo loading and tiedown arrangement set forth in the operator's manual and found acceptable to the Administrator must be used in complying with Sec. 121.287.

35. Performance data. Performance data on Curtiss model C-46 airplane certificated for maximum weight of 45,000 and 48,000 pounds for cargo-only operations.

1. The following performance limitation data, applicable to the Curtiss model C-46 airplane for cargo-only operation, must be used in determining compliance with Sec. Sec. 121.199 through 121.205. These data are presented in the tables and figures of this appendix.

Table 1--Takeoff Limitations

(a) Curtiss C-46 certificated for maximum weight of 45,000 pounds.

(1) Effective length of runway required when effective length is determined in accordance with Sec. 121.171 (distance to accelerate to 93 knots TIAS and stop, with zero wind and zero gradient). (Factor=1.00)

[Distance in feet]------------------------------------------------------------------------

Airplane weight in pounds

-----------------------------

Standard altitude in feet 45,000

39,000 42,000 \1\------------------------------------------------------------------------S.L....................................... 4,110 4,290 4,5701,000..................................... 4,250 4,440 4,7202,000..................................... 4,400 4,600 4,8803,000..................................... 4,650 4,880 5,1904,000..................................... 4,910 5,170 5,5005,000..................................... 5,160 5,450 5,8106,000..................................... 5,420 5,730 6,1207,000..................................... 5,680 6,000 6,4408,000..................................... 5,940 6,280 (\1\)------------------------------------------------------------------------\1\ Ref. Fig. 1(a)(1) for weight and distance for altitudes above

7,000[foot].

(2) Actual length of runway required when effective length, considering obstacles, is not determined (distance to accelerate to 93 knots TIAS and stop, divided by the factor 0.85).

[Distance in feet]------------------------------------------------------------------------

Airplane weight in pounds

-----------------------------

Standard altitude in feet 45,000

39,000 42,000 \1\------------------------------------------------------------------------S.L....................................... 4,830 5,050 5,3701,000..................................... 5,000 5,230 5,5502,000..................................... 5,170 5,410 5,7403,000..................................... 5,470 5,740 6,1004,000..................................... 5,770 6,080 6,4705,000..................................... 6,070 6,410 6,8306,000..................................... 6,380 6,740 7,2007,000..................................... 6,680 7,070 7,5708,000..................................... 6,990 7,410 (\1\)------------------------------------------------------------------------\1\ Ref. Fig. 1(a)(2) for weight and distance for altitudes above

7,000[foot].

(b) Curtiss C-46 certificated for maximum weight 48,000 pounds.

(1) Effective length of runway required when effective length is determined in accordance with Sec. 121.171 (distance to accelerate to 93 knots TIAS and stop, with zero wind and zero gradient). (Factor=1.00)

[Distance in feet]------------------------------------------------------------------------

Airplane weight in pounds

---------------------------------------

Standard altitude in feet 48,000

39,000 42,000 45,000 \1\------------------------------------------------------------------------S.L............................. 4,110 4,290 4,570 4,9501,000........................... 4,250 4,440 4,720 5,1302,000........................... 4,400 4,600 4,880 5,3003,000........................... 4,650 4,880 5,190 5,6704,000........................... 4,910 5,170 5,500 6,0505,000........................... 5,160 5,450 5,810 6,4206,000........................... 5,420 5,730 6,120 6,8007,000........................... 5,680 6,000 6,440 (\1\)8,000........................... 5,940 6,280 6,750 (\1\)------------------------------------------------------------------------\1\ Ref. Fig. 1(b)(1) for weight and distance for altitudes above

6,000[foot].

(2) Actual length of runway required when effective length, considering obstacles, is not determined (distance to accelerate to 93 knots TIAS and stop, divided by the factor 0.85).

[Distance in feet]------------------------------------------------------------------------

Airplane weight in pounds

---------------------------------------

Standard altitude in feet 48,000

39,000 42,000 45,000 \1\------------------------------------------------------------------------S.L............................. 4,830 5,050 5,370 5,8301,000........................... 5,000 5,230 5,550 6,0302,000........................... 5,170 5,410 5,740 6,2303,000........................... 5,470 5,740 6,100 6,6704,000........................... 5,770 6,080 6,470 7,1205,000........................... 6,070 6,410 6,830 7,5606,000........................... 6,380 6,740 7,200 8,0107,000........................... 6,680 7,070 7,570 (\1\)8,000........................... 6,990 7,410 7,940 (\1\)------------------------------------------------------------------------\1\ Ref. Fig. 1(b)(2) for weight and distance for altitudes above

6,000[foot].

Table 2--En Route Limitations

(a) Curtiss model C-46 certificated for maximum weight of 45,000 pounds (based on a climb speed of 113 knots (TIAS)). ------------------------------------------------------------------------

Terrain

Weight (pounds) clearance Blower setting

(feet) \1\------------------------------------------------------------------------45,000................................ 6,450 Low.44,000................................ 7,000 Do.43,000................................ 7,500 Do.42,200................................ 8,000 High.41,000................................ 9,600 Do.40,000................................ 11,000 Do.39,000................................ 12,300 Do.------------------------------------------------------------------------\1\ Highest altitude of terrain over which airplanes may be operated in

compliance with Sec. 121.201.Ref. Fig. 2(a).

(b) Curtiss model C-46 certificated for maximum weight of 48,000 pounds or with engine installation approved for 2,550 revolutions per minute (1,700 brake horsepower). Maximum continuous power in low blower (based on a climb speed of 113 knots (TIAS)). ------------------------------------------------------------------------

Terrain

Weight (pounds) clearance Blower setting

(feet) \1\------------------------------------------------------------------------48,000................................ 5,850 Low.47,000................................ 6,300 Do.46,000................................ 6,700 Do.45,000................................ 7,200 Do.44,500................................ 7,450 Do.44,250................................ 8,000 High.44,000................................ 8,550 Do.43,000................................ 10,800 Do.42,000................................ 12,500 Do.41,000................................ 13,000 Do.------------------------------------------------------------------------\1\ Highest altitude of terrain over which airplanes may be operated in

compliance with Sec. 121.201.Ref. Fig. 2(b).

Table 3--Landing Limitations

(a) Intended Destination.

Effective length of runway required for intended destination when effective length is determined in accordance with Sec. 121.171 with zero wind and zero gradient.

(1) Curtiss model C-46 certificated for maximum weight of 45,000 pounds. (0.60 factor)

Distance in feet----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Airplane weight in pounds and approach speeds \1\ in knots

Standard altitude in feet ---------------------------------------------------------------

40,000 V50 42,000 V50 44,000 V50 45,000 V50----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------S.L............................................. 4,320 86 4,500 88 4,700 90 4,800 911,000........................................... 4,440 86 4,620 88 4,830 90 4,930 912,000........................................... 4,550 86 4,750 88 4,960 90 5,050 913,000........................................... 4,670 86 4,880 88 5,090 90 5,190 914,000........................................... 4,800 86 5,000 88 5,220 90 5,320 915,000........................................... 4,920 86 5,140 88 5,360 90 5,460 916,000........................................... 5,040 86 5,270 88 5,550 90 5,600 917,000........................................... 5,170 86 5,410 88 5,650 90 5,750 918,000........................................... 5,310 86 5,550 88 5,800 90 5,900 91----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------\1\ Steady approach speed through 50-foot height TIAS denoted by symbol V50.Ref. Fig. 3(a)(1).

(2) Curtiss model C-46 certificated for maximum weight of 48,000 pounds.\1\ (0.60 factor.)

Distance in feet----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Airplane weight in pounds and approach speeds \2\ in knots

Standard altitude in feet ---------------------------------------------------------------

42,000 V50 44,000 V50 46,000 V50 43,000 V50----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------S.L............................................. 3,370 80 3,490 82 3,620 84 3,740 861,000........................................... 3,460 80 3,580 82 3,710 84 3,830 862,000........................................... 3,540 80 3,670 82 3,800 84 3,920 863,000........................................... 3,630 80 3,760 82 3,890 84 4,020 864,000........................................... 3,720 80 3,850 82 3,980 84 4,110 865,000........................................... 3,800 80 3,940 82 4,080 84 4,220 866,000........................................... 3,890 80 4,040 82 4,180 84 4,320 867,000........................................... 3,980 80 4,140 82 4,280 84 4,440 868,000........................................... 4,080 80 4,240 82 4,390 84 4,550 86----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------\1\ For use with Curtiss model C-46 airplanes when approved for this weight.\2\ Steady approach speed through 50 height knots TIAS denoted by symbol V503.Ref. Fig. 3(a)(2).

(b) Alternate Airports.

Effective length of runway required when effective length is determined in accordance with Sec. 121.171 with zero wind and zero gradient.

(1) Curtiss model C-46 certificated for maximum weight of 45,000 pounds. (0.70 factor.)

Distance in feet----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Airplane weight in pounds and approach speeds \1\ in knots

Standard altitude in feet ---------------------------------------------------------------

40,000 V50 42,000 V50 44,000 V50 45,000 V50----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------S.L............................................. 3,700 86 3,860 88 4,030 90 4,110 911,000........................................... 3,800 86 3,960 88 4,140 90 4,220 912,000........................................... 3,900 86 4,070 88 4,250 90 4,340 913,000........................................... 4,000 86 4,180 88 4,360 90 4,450 914,000........................................... 4,110 86 4,290 88 4,470 90 4,560 915,000........................................... 4,210 86 4,400 88 4,590 90 4,680 916,000........................................... 4,330 86 4,510 88 4,710 90 4,800 917,000........................................... 4,430 86 4,630 88 4,840 90 4,930 918,000........................................... 4,550 86 4,750 88 4,970 90 5,060 91----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------\1\ Steady approach speed through 50 foot-height-knots TIAS denoted by symbol V50.Ref. Fig. 3(b)(1).

(2) Curtiss model C-46 certificated for maximum weight of 48,000 pounds.\1\ (0.70 factor.)

Distance in feet----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Airplane weight in pounds and approach speeds \2\ in knots

Standard altitude in feet ---------------------------------------------------------------

42,000 V50 44,000 V50 46,000 V50 48,000 V50----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------S.L............................................. 2,890 80 3,000 82 3,110 84 3,220 861,000........................................... 2,960 80 3,070 82 3,180 84 3,280 862,000........................................... 3,040 80 3,150 82 3,260 84 3,360 863,000........................................... 3,110 80 3,220 82 3,340 84 3,440 864,000........................................... 3,180 80 3,300 82 3,410 84 3,520 865,000........................................... 3,260 80 3,380 82 3,500 84 3,610 866,000........................................... 3,330 80 3,460 82 3,580 84 3,700 867,000........................................... 3,420 80 3,540 82 3,670 84 3,800 868,000........................................... 3,500 80 3,630 82 3,760 84 3,900 86----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------\1\ For use with Curtiss model C-46 airplanes when approved for this weight.\2\ Steady approach speed through 50 foot-height-knots TIAS denoted by symbol V50.Ref. Fig. 3(b)(2).

(c) Actual length of runway required when effective length, considering obstacles, is not determined in accordance with Sec. 121.171.

(1) Curtiss model C-46 certificated for maximum weight of 45,000 pounds. (0.55 factor.)

Distance in feet----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Airplane weight in pounds and approach speeds \1\ in knots

Standard altitude in feet ---------------------------------------------------------------

40,000 V50 42,000 V50 44,000 V50 45,000 V50----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------S.L............................................. 4,710 86 4,910 88 5,130 90 5,230 911,000........................................... 4,840 86 5,050 88 5,270 90 5,370 912,000........................................... 4,960 86 5,180 88 5,410 90 5,510 913,000........................................... 5,090 86 5,320 88 5,550 90 5,660 914,000........................................... 5,230 86 5,460 88 5,700 90 5,810 915,000........................................... 5,360 86 5,600 88 5,850 90 5,960 916,000........................................... 5,500 86 5,740 88 6,000 90 6,110 917,000........................................... 5,640 86 5,900 88 6,170 90 6,280 918,000........................................... 5,790 86 6,050 88 6,340 90 6,450 91----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------\1\ Steady approach speed through 50 foot-height-knots TIAS denoted by symbol V50.Ref. Fig. 3(c)(1).

(2) Curtiss C-46 certificated for maximum weight of 48,000 pounds.\1\ (0.55 factor.)

Distance in feet----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Airplane weight in pounds and approach speeds \2\ in knots

Standard altitude in feet ---------------------------------------------------------------

42,000 V50 44,000 V50 46,000 V50 48,000 V50----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------S.L............................................. 3,680 80 3,820 82 3,960 84 4,090 861,000........................................... 3,770 80 3,910 82 4,050 84 4,180 862,000........................................... 3,860 80 4,000 82 4,140 84 4,280 863,000........................................... 3,960 80 4,090 82 4,240 84 4,380 864,000........................................... 4,050 80 4,190 82 4,340 84 4,490 865,000........................................... 4,150 80 4,290 82 4,450 84 4,600 86

6,000........................................... 4,240 80 4,400 82 4,560 84 4,710 867,000........................................... 4,350 80 4,510 82 4,670 84 4,840 868,000........................................... 4,450 80 4,620 82 4,790 84 4,960 86----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------\1\ For use with Curtiss model C-46 airplanes when approved for this weight.\2\ Steady approach speed through 50 foot-height-knots TIAS denoted by symbol V50.Ref. Fig. 3(c)(2). [GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TC26SE91.009 [GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TC26SE91.010 [GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TC26SE91.011 [GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TC26SE91.012 [GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TC26SE91.013 [GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TC26SE91.014 [GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TC26SE91.015 [GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TC26SE91.016 [GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TC26SE91.017 [GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TC26SE91.018 [GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TC26SE91.019 [GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TC26SE91.020 [GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TC26SE91.021 [GRAPHIC] [TIFF OMITTED] TC26SE91.022 [Doc. No. 4080, 30 FR 258, Jan. 3, 1965; 30 FR 481, Jan. 14, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 121-207, 54 FR 39293, Sept. 25, 1989]

Sec. Appendix D to Part 121--Criteria for Demonstration of Emergency

Evacuation Procedures Under Sec. 121.291

(a) Aborted takeoff demonstration. (1) The demonstration must be conducted either during the dark of the night or during daylight with the dark of the night simulated. If the demonstration is conducted indoors during daylight hours, it must be conducted with each window covered and each door closed to minimize the daylight effect. Illumination on the floor or ground may be used, but it must be kept low and shielded against shining into the airplane's windows or doors.

(1) The demonstration must be conducted either during the dark of the night or during daylight with the dark of the night simulated. If the demonstration is conducted indoors during daylight hours, it must be conducted with each window covered and each door closed to minimize the daylight effect. Illumination on the floor or ground may be used, but it must be kept low and shielded against shining into the airplane's windows or doors.

(2) The airplane must be a normal ground attitude with landing gear extended.

(3) Unless the airplane is equipped with an off-wing descent means, stands or ramps may be used for descent from the wing to the ground. Safety equipment such as mats or inverted life rafts may be placed on the floor or ground to protect participants. No other equipment that is not part of the emergency evacuation equipment of the airplane may be used to aid the participants in reaching the ground.

(4) The airplane's normal electrical power sources must be deenergized.

(5) All emergency equipment for the type of passenger-carrying operation involved must be installed in accordance with the certificate holder's manual.

(6) Each external door and exit, and each internal door or curtain must be in position to simulate a normal takeoff.

(7) A representative passenger load of persons in normal health must be used. At least 40 percent of the passenger load must be females. At least 35 percent of the passenger load must be over 50 years of age. At least 15 percent of the passenger load must be female and over 50 year of age. Three life-size dolls, not included as part of the total passenger load, must be carried by passengers to simulate live infants 2 years old or younger. Crewmembers, mechanics, and training personnel, who maintain or operate the airplane in the normal course of their duties, may not be used as passengers.

(8) No passenger may be assigned a specific seat except as the Administrator may require. Except as required by item (12) of this paragraph, no employee of the certificate holder may be seated next to an emergency exit.

(9) Seat belts and shoulder harnesses (as required) must be fastened.

(10) Before the start of the demonstration, approximately one-half of the total average amount of carry-on baggage, blankets, pillows, and other similar articles must be distributed at several locations in the aisles and emergency exit access ways to create minor obstructions.

(11) The seating density and arrangement of the airplane must be representative of the highest capacity passenger version of that airplane the certificate holder operates or proposes to operate.

(12) Each crewmember must be a member of a regularly scheduled line crew, except that flight crewmembers need not be members of a regularly scheduled line crew, provided they have knowledge of the airplane. Each crewmember must be seated in the seat the crewmember is normally assigned for takeoff, and must remain in that seat until the signal for commencement of the demonstration is received.

(13) No crewmember or passenger may be given prior knowledge of the emergency exits available for the demonstration.

(14) The certificate holder may not practice, rehearse, or describe the demonstration for the participants nor may any participant have taken part in this type of demonstration within the preceding 6 months.

(15) The pretakeoff passenger briefing required by Sec. 121.571 may be given in accordance with the certificate holder's manual. The passengers may also be warned to follow directions of crewmembers, but may not be instructed on the procedures to be followed in the demonstration.

(16) If safety equipment as allowed by item (3) of this section is provided, either all passenger and cockpit windows must be blacked out or all of the emergency exits must have safety equipment in order to prevent disclosure of the available emergency exits.

(17) Not more than 50 percent of the emergency exits in the sides of the fuselage of an airplane that meet all of the requirements applicable to the required emergency exits for that airplane may be used for the demonstration. Exits that are not to be used in the demonstration must have the exit handle deactivated or must be indicated by red lights, red tape, or other acceptable means, placed outside the exits to indicate fire or other reason that they are unusable. The exits to be used must be representative of all of the emergency exits on the airplane and must be designated by the certificate holder, subject to approval by the Administrator. At least one floor level exit must be used.

(18) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(3) of this appendix, all evacuees must leave the airplane by a means provided as part of the airplane's equipment.

(19) The certificate holder's approved procedures and all of the emergency equipment that is normally available, including slides, ropes, lights, and megaphones, must be fully utilized during the demonstration, except that the flightcrew must take no active role in assisting others inside the cabin during the demonstration.

(20) The evacuation time period is completed when the last occupant has evacuated the airplane and is on the ground. Evacuees using stands or ramps allowed by item (3) above are considered to be on the ground when they are on the stand or ramp: Provided, That the acceptance rate of the stand or ramp is no greater than the acceptance rate of the means available on the airplane for descent from the wing during an actual crash situation.

(b) Ditching demonstration. The demonstration must assume that daylight hours exist outside the airplane, and that all required crewmembers are available for the demonstration.

(1) If the certificate holder's manual requires the use of passengers to assist in the launching of liferafts, the needed passengers must be aboard the airplane and participate in the demonstration according to the manual.

(2) A stand must be placed at each emergency exit and wing, with the top of the platform at a height simulating the water level of the airplane following a ditching.

(3) After the ditching signal has been received, each evacuee must don a life vest according to the certificate holder's manual.

(4) Each liferaft must be launched and inflated, according to the certificate holder's manual, and all other required emergency equipment must be placed in rafts.

(5) Each evacuee must enter a liferaft, and the crewmembers assigned to each liferaft must indicate the location of emergency equipment aboard the raft and describe its use.

(6) Either the airplane, a mockup of the airplane or a floating device simulating a passenger compartment must be used.

(i) If a mockup of the airplane is used, it must be a life-size mockup of the interior and representative of the airplane currently used by or proposed to be used by the certificate holder, and must contain adequate seats for use of the evacuees. Operation of the emergency exits and the doors must closely simulate those on the airplane. Sufficient wing area must be installed outside the over-the-wing exits to demonstrate the evacuation.

(ii) If a floating device simulating a passenger compartment is used, it must be representative, to the extent possible, of the passenger compartment of the airplane used in operations. Operation of the emergency exits and the doors must closely simulate operation on that airplane. Sufficient wing area must be installed outside the over-the-wing exits to demonstrate the evacuation. The device must be equipped with the same survival equipment as is installed on the airplane, to accommodate all persons participating in the demonstration. [Doc. No. 2033, 30 FR 3206, Mar. 9, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 121-30, 32 FR 13268, Sept. 20, 1967; Amdt. 121-41, 33 FR 9067, June 20, 1968; Amdt. 121-46, 34 FR 5545, Mar. 22, 1969; Amdt. 121-47, 34 FR 11489, July 11, 1969; Amdt. 121-233, 58 FR 45230, Aug. 26, 1993]

Sec. Appendix E to Part 121--Flight Training Requirements

The maneuvers and procedures required by Sec. 121.424 of this part for pilot initial, transition, and upgrade flight training are set forth in the certificate holder's approved low-altitude windshear flight training program, Sec. 121.423 extended envelope training, and in this appendix. All required maneuvers and procedures must be performed inflight except that windshear and extended envelope training maneuvers and procedures must be performed in an airplane simulator in which the maneuvers and procedures are specifically authorized to be accomplished. Certain other maneuvers and procedures may be performed in an airplane simulator with a visual system (visual simulator), an airplane simulator without a visual system (nonvisual simulator), a training device, or a static airplane as indicated by the appropriate symbol in the respective column opposite the maneuver or procedure.

Whenever a maneuver or procedure is authorized to be performed in a nonvisual simulator, it may be performed in a visual simulator; when authorized in a training device, it may be performed in a visual or nonvisual simulator, and in some cases, a static airplane. Whenever the requirement may be performed in either a training device or a static airplane, the appropriate symbols are entered in the respective columns.

For the purpose of this appendix, the following symbols mean--P=Pilot in Command (PIC).S=Second in Command (SIC).B=PIC and SIC.F=Flight Engineer.PJ=PIC transition Jet to Jet.PP=PIC transition Prop. to Prop.SJ=SIC transition Jet to Jet.SP=SIC transition Prop. to Prop.AT=All transition categories (PJ, PP, SJ, SP).PS=SIC upgrading to PIC (same airplane).SF=Flight Engineer upgrading to SIC (same airplane).BU=Both SIC and Flight Engineer upgrading (same airplane).

Flight Training Requirements------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Initial training Transition training Upgrade training

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

A/P Simulator A/P Simulator A/P Simulator

Maneuvers/Procedures ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Nonvisual Nonvisual Nonvisual

Inflight Static Visual simulator simulator Training device Inflight Static Visual simulator simulator Training device Inflight Static Visual simulator simulator Training device------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------As appropriate to the airplane and the ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ............... ...............

operation involved, flight training for

pilots must include the following maneuvers

and procedures..I. Preflight:

(a) Visual inspection of the exterior and ................ B............... ................ ................ ................ ................ AT.............. ................ ................ ................ ................ BU.............. ................ ............... ...............

interior of the airplane, the location of

each item to be inspected, and the

purpose for inspecting it. If a flight

engineer is a required crewmember for the

particular type of airplane, the visual

inspection may be replaced by using an

approved pictorial means that

realistically portrays the location and

detain of preflight inspection items..

(b) Use of the prestart check list, ................ ................ ................ B............... ................ ................ ................ ................ AT.............. ................ ................ ................ ................ BU............. ...............

appropriate control system checks,

starting procedures, radio and electronic

equipment checks, and the selection of

proper navigation and communications

radio facilities and frequencies prior to

flight.

(c)(1) Before March 12, 2019, taxiing, B............... ................ ................ ................ ................ AT.............. ................ ................ ................ ................ BU.............. ................ ................ ............... ...............

(1) Before March 12, 2019, taxiing, B............... ................ ................ ................ ................ AT.............. ................ ................ ................ ................ BU.............. ................ ................ ............... ...............

sailing, and docking procedures in

compliance with instructions issued by

the appropriate Traffic Control Authority

or by the person conducting the training.

(2) Taxiing. Beginning March 12, 2019,

this maneuver includes the following:.

(i) Taxiing, sailing, and docking B............... ................ ................ ................ ................ AT.............. ................ ................ ................ ................ BU.............. ................ ................ ............... ...............

procedures in compliance with

instructions issued by the

appropriate Traffic Control

Authority or by the person

conducting the training.

(ii) Use of airport diagram (surface

movement chart).

(iii) Obtaining appropriate

clearance before crossing or

entering active runways.

(iv) Observation of all surface

movement guidance control markings

and lighting.

(d)(1) Before March 12, 2019, pre-takeoff ................ ................ ................ B............... ................ ................ ................ ................ AT.............. ................ ................ ................ ................ BU............. ...............

(1) Before March 12, 2019, pre-takeoff ................ ................ ................ B............... ................ ................ ................ ................ AT.............. ................ ................ ................ ................ BU............. ...............

checks that include power-plant checks.

(2) Beginning March 12, 2019, pre- ................ ................ B............... ................ ................ ................ ................ AT.............. ................ ................ ................ ................ BU.............. ............... ...............

takeoff procedures that include power-

plant checks, receipt of takeoff

clearance and confirmation of aircraft

location, and FMS entry (if

appropriate) for departure runway prior

to crossing hold short line for takeoff.II. Takeoffs:

(a) Normal takeoffs which, for the purpose B............... ................ ................ ................ ................ AT.............. ................ ................ ................ ................ BU.............. ................ ................ ............... ...............

of this maneuver, begin when the airplane

is taxied into position on the runway to

be used.

(b) Takeoffs with instrument conditions ................ ................ B............... ................ ................ ................ ................ AT.............. ................ ................ ................ ................ BU.............. ............... ...............

simulated at or before reaching an

altitude of 100[foot] above the airport

elevation.

(c)(1) Crosswind takeoffs................. B............... ................ ................ ................ ................ AT.............. ................ ................ ................ ................ BU.............. ................ ................ ............... ...............

(1) Crosswind takeoffs................. B............... ................ ................ ................ ................ AT.............. ................ ................ ................ ................ BU.............. ................ ................ ............... ...............

(2) Beginning March 12, 2019, crosswind B............... ................ ................ ................ ................ AT.............. ................ ................ ................ ................ BU.............. ................ ................ ............... ...............

takeoffs including crosswind takeoffs

with gusts if practicable under the

existing meteorological, airport, and

traffic conditions.

(d) Takeoffs with a simulated failure of ................ ................ B............... ................ ................ ................ ................ AT.............. ................ ................ ................ ................ BU.............. ............... ...............

the most critical powerplant--.

(1) At a point after V1 and before V2 ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ............... ...............

that in the judgment of the person

conducting the training is appropriate

to the airplane type under the

prevailing conditions; or.

(2) At a point as close as possible ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ............... ...............

after V1 when V1 and V2 or V1 and VR

are identical; or.

(3) At the appropriate speed for ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ............... ...............

nontransport category airplanes.For transition training in an airplane group ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ............... ...............

with engines mounted in similar positions,

or from wing-mounted engines to aft

fuselage-mounted engines, the maneuver may

be performed in a nonvisual simulator.

(e) Rejected takeoffs accomplished during ................ ................ ................ B............... ................ ................ ................ ................ AT.............. ................ ................ ................ ................ BU............. ...............

a normal takeoff run after reaching a

reasonable speed determined by giving due

consideration to aircraft

characteristics, runway length, surface

conditions, wind direction and velocity,

brake heat energy, and any other

pertinent factors that may adversely

affect safety or the airplane.

Training in at least one of the above ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ............... ...............

takeoffs must be accomplished at night.

For transitioning pilots this requirement

may be met during the operating

experience required under Sec. 121.434

of this part by performing a normal

takeoff at night when a check airman

serving as pilot-in-command is occupying

a pilot station.III. Flight Maneuvers and Procedures:

(a) Turns with and without spoilers....... ................ ................ ................ B............... ................ ................ ................ ................ AT.............. ................ ................ ................ ................ BU............. ...............

(b) Tuck and Mach buffet.................. ................ ................ ................ B............... ................ ................ ................ ................ AT.............. ................ ................ ................ ................ BU............. ...............

(c) Maximum endurance and maximum range ................ ................ ................ B............... ................ ................ ................ ................ AT.............. ................ ................ ................ ................ BU............. ...............

procedures.

(d) Operation of systems and controls at ................ ................ ................ B............... ................ ................ ................ ................ AT.............. ................ ................ ................ ................ PS............. ...............

the flight engineer station.

(e) Runaway and jammed stabilizer......... ................ ................ ................ B............... ................ ................ ................ ................ AT.............. ................ ................ ................ ................ BU............. ...............

(f) Normal and abnormal or alternate

operation of the following systems and

procedures:

(1) Pressurization...................... ................ ................ ................ ................ B............... ................ ................ ................ ................ AT.............. ................ ................ ................ ............... BU

(2) Pneumatic........................... ................ ................ ................ ................ B............... ................ ................ ................ ................ AT.............. ................ ................ ................ ............... BU

(3) Air conditioning.................... ................ ................ ................ ................ B............... ................ ................ ................ ................ AT.............. ................ ................ ................ ............... BU

(4) Fuel and oil........................ ................ B............... ................ ................ B............... ................ AT.............. ................ ................ AT.............. ................ BU.............. ................ ............... BU

(5) Electrical.......................... ................ B............... ................ ................ B............... ................ AT.............. ................ ................ AT.............. ................ BU.............. ................ ............... BU

(6) Hydraulic........................... ................ B............... ................ ................ B............... ................ AT.............. ................ ................ AT.............. ................ BU.............. ................ ............... BU

(7) Flight control...................... ................ B............... ................ ................ B............... ................ AT.............. ................ ................ ................ ................ BU.............. ................ ............... BU

(8) Anti-icing and deicing.............. ................ ................ ................ B............... ................ ................ ................ ................ AT.............. ................ ................ ................ ................ BU............. ...............

(9) Auto-pilot.......................... ................ ................ ................ B............... ................ ................ ................ ................ AT.............. ................ ................ ................ ................ BU............. ...............

(10) Automatic or other approach aids... B............... ................ ................ B............... ................ ................ ................ ................ AT.............. ................ SF.............. ................ ................ BU............. ...............

(11) Stall warning devices, stall B............... ................ ................ B............... ................ ................ ................ ................ AT.............. ................ SF.............. ................ ................ BU............. ...............

avoidance devices, and stability

augmentation devices.

(12) Airborne radar devices............. ................ ................ ................ B............... ................ ................ ................ ................ AT.............. ................ ................ ................ ................ BU............. ...............

(13) Any other systems, devices, or aids ................ ................ ................ B............... ................ ................ ................ ................ AT.............. ................ ................ ................ ................ BU............. ...............

available.

(14) Electrical, hydraulic, flight ................ B............... ................ ................ B............... ................ AT.............. ................ ................ AT.............. ................ BU.............. ................ ............... BU

control, and flight instrument system

malfunctioning or failure.

(15) Landing gear and flap systems ................ B............... ................ ................ B............... ................ AT.............. ................ ................ AT.............. ................ BU.............. ................ ............... BU

failure or malfunction.

(16) Failure of navigation or ................ ................ ................ B............... ................ ................ ................ ................ AT.............. ................ ................ ................ ................ BU............. ...............

communications equipment.

(g) Flight emergency procedures that

include at least the following:

(1) Powerplant, heater, cargo ................ B............... ................ ................ B............... ................ AT.............. ................ ................ AT.............. ................ BU.............. ................ ............... BU

compartment, cabin, flight deck, wing,

and electrical fires.

(2) Smoke control....................... ................ B............... ................ ................ B............... ................ AT.............. ................ ................ AT.............. ................ BU.............. ................ BU............. BU

(3) Powerplant failures................. ................ ................ ................ B............... ................ ................ ................ ................ AT.............. ................ ................ ................ ................ ............... BU

(4) Fuel jettisoning.................... ................ B............... ................ ................ B............... ................ B............... ................ ................ B............... ................ BU.............. ................ ............... BU

(5) Any other emergency procedures ................ ................ ................ B............... ................ ................ ................ ................ AT.............. ................ ................ ................ ................ BU............. ...............

outlined in the appropriate flight

manual.

(h) Steep turns in each direction. Each ................ ................ ................ P............... ................ ................ ................ ................ PJ.............. ................ ................ ................ ................ PS............. ...............

steep turn must involve a bank angle of

45[deg] with a heading change of at least

180[deg] but not more than 360[deg].

(i) Stall Prevention. For the purpose of ................ ................ ................ B............... ................ ................ ................ ................ AT.............. ................ ................ ................ ................ BU............. ...............

this training the approved recovery

procedure must be initiated at the first

indication of an impending stall (buffet,

stick shaker, aural warning). Stall

prevention training must be conducted in

at least the following configurations:.

(1) Takeoff configuration (except where

the airplane uses only a zero-flap

takeoff configuration).

(2) Clean configuration.................

(3) Landing configuration...............

(j) Recovery from specific flight ................ ................ ................ B............... ................ ................ ................ ................ AT.............. ................ ................ ................ ................ BU............. ...............

characteristics that are peculiar to the

airplane type.

(k) Instrument procedures that include the

following:

(1) Area departure and arrival.......... ................ ................ ................ B............... ................ ................ ................ ................ AT.............. ................ ................ ................ ................ BU............. ...............

(2) Use of navigation systems including ................ ................ ................ B............... ................ ................ ................ ................ AT.............. ................ ................ ................ ................ BU............. ...............

adherence to assigned radials.

(3) Holding............................. ................ ................ ................ B............... ................ ................ ................ ................ AT.............. ................ ................ ................ ................ BU............. ...............

(l) ILS instrument approaches that include

the following:

(1) Normal ILS approaches............... B............... ................ ................ ................ ................ AT.............. ................ ................ ................ ................ BU.............. ................ ................ ............... ...............

(2) Manually controlled ILS approaches B............... ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ AT.............. ................ ................ ................ ................ BU.............. ............... ...............

with a simulated failure of one

powerplane which occurs before

initiating the final approach course

and continues to touchdown or through

the missed approach procedure.

(m) Instrument approaches and missed

approaches other than ILS which include

the following:

(1) Nonprecision approaches that the ................ ................ ................ ................ B............... ................ ................ ................ ................ AT.............. ................ ................ BU.............. ............... ...............

trainee is likely to use.

(2) In addition to subparagraph (1) of ................ ................ B............... ................ ................ ................ ................ AT.............. ................ ................ ................ ................ BU.............. ............... ...............

this paragraph, at least one other

nonprecision approach and missed

approach procedure that the trainee is

likely to use.In connection with paragraphs III(k) and ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ............... ...............

III(l), each instrument approach must be

performed according to any procedures and

limitations approved for the approach

facility used. The instrument approach

begins when the airplane is over the

initial approach fix for the approach

procedure being used (or turned over to the

final approach controller in the case of

GCA approach) and ends when the airplane

touches down on the runway or when

transition to a missed approach

configuration is completed.

(n) Circling approaches which include the B............... ................ ................ ................ ................ AT.............. ................ ................ ................ ................ BU.............. ................ ................ ............... ...............

following:

(1) That portion of the circling ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ............... ...............

approach to the authorized minimum

altitude for the procedure being used

must be made under simulated instrument

conditions.

(2) The circling approach must be made ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ............... ...............

to the authorized minimum circling

approach altitude followed by a change

in heading and the necessary

maneuvering (by visual reference) to

maintain a flight path that permits a

normal landing on a runway at least

90[deg] from the final approach course

of the simulated instrument portion of

the approach.

(3) The circling approach must be ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ............... ...............

performed without excessive

maneuvering, and without exceeding the

normal operating limits of the

airplane. The angle of bank should not

exceed 30[deg].Training in the circling approach maneuver ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ............... ...............

is not required for a pilot employed by a

certificate holder subject to the operating

rules of Part 121 of this chapter if the

certificate holder's manual prohibits a

circling approach in weather conditions

below 1000-3 (ceiling and visibility); for

a SIC if the certificate holder's manual

prohibits the SIC from performing a

circling approach in operations under this

part.

(o) Zero-flap approaches. Training in this P............... ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ PP, PJ.......... ................ ................ ................ ................ PS.............. ............... ...............

maneuver is not required for a particular

airplane type if the Administrator has

determined that the probability of flap

extension failure on that type airplane

is extremely remote due to system design.

In making this determination, the

Administrator determines whether training

on slats only and partial flap approaches

is necessary.

(p) Missed approaches which include the

following:

(1) Missed approaches from ILS ................ ................ B............... ................ ................ ................ ................ AT.............. ................ ................ ................ ................ BU.............. ............... ...............

approaches.

(2) Other missed approaches............. ................ ................ ................ ................ B............... ................ ................ ................ ................ AT.............. ................ ................ ................ ............... BU

(3) Missed approaches that include a ................ ................ ................ ................ B............... ................ ................ ................ ................ AT.............. ................ ................ ................ ............... BU

complete approved missed approach

procedure.

(4) Missed approaches that include a ................ ................ B............... ................ ................ ................ ................ AT.............. ................ ................ ................ ................ BU.............. ............... ...............

powerplant failure.IV. Landings and Approaches to Landings:

(a) Normal landings....................... B............... ................ ................ ................ ................ AT.............. ................ ................ ................ ................ BU.............. ................ ................ ............... ...............

(b) Landing and go around with the P............... ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ PJ, PP.......... ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ............... PS

horizontal stabilizer out of trim.

(c) Landing in sequence from an ILS B............... ................ ................ ................ ................ AT.............. ................ AT.............. ................ ................ ................ ................ BU.............. ............... ...............

instrument approach.

(d)(1) Cross wind landing................. B............... ................ ................ ................ ................ AT.............. ................ ................ ................ ................ BU.............. ................ ................ ............... ...............

(1) Cross wind landing................. B............... ................ ................ ................ ................ AT.............. ................ ................ ................ ................ BU.............. ................ ................ ............... ...............

(2) Beginning March 12, 2019, crosswind B............... ................ ................ ................ ................ AT.............. ................ ................ ................ ................ BU.............. ................ ................ ............... ...............

landing, including crosswind landings

with gusts if practicable under the

existing meteorological, airport, and

traffic conditions.

(e) Maneuvering to a landing with

simulated powerplant failure, as follows:

(1) Except as provided in subparagraph P............... ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ PJ, PP.......... ................ ................ ................ ................ PS.............. ............... ...............

(3) of this paragraph in the case of 3-

engine airplanes, maneuvering to a

landing with an approved procedure that

approximates the loss of two

powerplants (center and one out-board

engine).

(2) Except as provided in subparagraph P............... ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ PJ, PP.......... ................ ................ ................ ................ PS.............. ............... ...............

(3) of this paragraph, in the case of

other multiengine airplanes,

maneuvering to a landing with a

simulated failure of 50 percent of

available powerplants with the

simulated loss of power on one side of

the airplane.

(3) Notwithstanding the requirements of

subparagraphs (1) and (2) of this

paragraph, flight crewmembers who

satisfy those requirements in a visual

simulator must also:

(i) Take inflight training in one- ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ............... ...............

engine inoperative landings; and.

(ii) In the case of a second-in- ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ............... ...............

command up-grading to a pilot-in-

command and who has not previously

performed the maneuvers required by

this paragraph in flight, meet the

requirements of this paragraph

applicable to initial training for

pilots-in-command.

(4) In the case of flight crewmembers ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ............... ...............

other than the pilot-in-command,

perform the maneuver with the simulated

loss of power of the most critical

powerplant only.

(f) Landing under simulated circling B............... ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ AT.............. ................ ................ ................ ................ BU.............. ............... ...............

approach conditions (exceptions under

III(n) applicable to this requirement).

(g) Rejected landings that include a B............... ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ AT.............. ................ ................ ................ ................ BU.............. ............... ...............

normal missed approach procedure after

the landing is rejected. For the purpose

of this maneuver the landing should be

rejected at approximately 50 feet and

approximately over the runway threshold.

(h) Zero-flap landings if the P............... ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ PP, PJ.......... ................ ................ ................ ................ PS.............. ............... ...............

Administrator finds that maneuver

appropriate for training in the airplane.

(i) Manual reversion (if appropriate)..... ................ ................ B............... ................ ................ ................ ................ AT.............. ................ ................ ................ ................ BU.............. ............... ...............

Training in landings and approaches to ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ................ ............... ...............

landings must include the types and

conditions provided in IV(a) through (i)

but more than one type may be combined

where appropriate.

Training in one of the above landings must B............... ................ ................ ................ ................ AT.............. ................ ................ ................ ................ BU.............. ................ ................ ............... ...............

be accomplished at night. For

transitioning pilots, this requirement

may be met during the operating

experience required under Sec. 121.434

of this part by performing a normal

landing when a check pilot serving as

pilot-in-command is occupying a pilot

station.------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------ [Doc. No. 9509, 35 FR 97, Jan. 3, 1970, as amended by Amdt. 121-91, 37 FR 10730, May 27, 1972; Amdt. 121-108, 38 FR 35446, Dec. 28, 1973; Amdt. 121-159, 45 FR 41595, June 19, 1980; Amdt. 121-199, 53 FR 37697, Sept. 27, 1988; Amdt. 121-366, 78 FR 67841, Nov. 12, 2013]

Sec. Appendix F to Part 121--Proficiency Check Requirements

The maneuvers and procedures required by Sec. 121.441 for pilot proficiency checks are set forth in this appendix and must be performed inflight except to the extent that certain maneuvers and procedures may be performed in an airplane simulator with a visual system (visual simulator), an airplane simulator without a visual system (nonvisual simulator), or a training device as indicated by the appropriate symbol in the respective column opposite the maneuver or procedure.

Whenever a maneuver or procedure is authorized to be performed in a nonvisual simulator, it may also be performed in a visual simulator; when authorized in a training device, it may be performed in a visual or nonvisual simulator.

For the purpose of this appendix, the following symbols mean--P=Pilot in Command.B=Both Pilot in Command and Second in Command.*=A symbol and asterisk (B*) indicates that a particular condition is specified in the maneuvers and procedures column.=When a maneuver is preceded by this symbol it indicates the maneuver may be required in the airplane at the discretion of the person conducting the check.

Throughout the maneuvers prescribed in this appendix, good judgment commensurate with a high level of safety must be demonstrated. In determining whether such judgment has been shown, the person conducting the check considers adherence to approved procedures, actions based on analysis of situations for which there is no prescribed procedure or recommended practice, and qualities of prudence and care in selecting a course of action. --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Required Permitted

-----------------------------------------------------------------

Waiver

Maneuvers/Procedures Simulated Visual Nonvisual Training provisions

instrument Inflight simulator simulator device of Sec.

conditions 121.441(d)--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------The procedures and maneuvers set forth in this appendix must be performed in a manner

that satisfactorily demonstrates knowledge and skill with respect to--

(1) The airplane, its systems and components;....................................... .......... ........ ......... ......... ........ ..........

(2) Proper control of airspeed, configuration, direction, altitude, and attitude in .......... ........ ......... ......... ........ ..........

accordance with procedures and limitations contained in the approved Airplane

Flight Manual, the certificate holder's operations Manual, check lists, or other

approved material appropriate to the airplane type; and............................

(3) Compliance with approach, ATC, or other applicable procedures................... .......... ........ ......... ......... ........ ..........I. Preflight:

(a) Equipment examination (oral or written). As part of the practical test the .......... ........ ......... ......... B ..........

equipment examination must be closely coordinated with, and related to, the flight

maneuvers portion but may not be given during the flight maneuvers portion. The

equipment examination must cover--.................................................

(1) Subjects requiring a practical knowledge of the airplane, its powerplants, .......... ........ ......... ......... ........ ..........

systems, components, operational, and performance factors;.......................

(2) Normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures, and the operations and limitations .......... ........ ......... ......... ........ ..........

relating thereto; and............................................................

(3) The appropriate provisions of the approved Airplane Flight Manual............. .......... ........ ......... ......... ........ ..........The person conducting the check may accept, as equal to this equipment test, an

equipment test given to the pilot in the certificate holder's ground school within

the preceding 6 calendar months

(b) Preflight inspection. The pilot must--.......................................... .......... ........ ......... ......... B B*

(1) Conduct an actual visual inspection of the exterior and interior of the .......... ........ ......... ......... ........ ..........

airplane, locating each item and explaining briefly the purpose for inspecting

it; and..........................................................................

(2) Demonstrate the use of the prestart check list, appropriate control system .......... ........ ......... ......... ........ ..........

checks, starting procedures, radio and electronic equipment checks, and the

selection of proper navigation and communications radio facilities and

frequencies prior to flight......................................................

Except for flight checks required by Sec. 121.424(d)(1)(ii), an approved pictorial

means that realistically portrays the location and detail of preflight inspection

items and provides for the portrayal of abnormal conditions may be substituted for

the preflight inspection. If a flight engineer is a required flight crewmember for

the particular type airplane, the visual inspection may be waived under Sec.

121.441(d)

(c)(1) Taxiing. Before March 12, 2019, this maneuver includes taxiing (in the case .......... B ......... ......... ........

(1) Taxiing. Before March 12, 2019, this maneuver includes taxiing (in the case .......... B ......... ......... ........

of a second in command proficiency check to the extent practical from the second in

command crew position), sailing, or docking procedures in compliance with

instructions issued by the appropriate traffic control authority or by the person

conducting the checks..............................................................

(c)(2) Taxiing. Beginning March 12, 2019, this maneuver includes the following: (i) .......... B ......... ......... ........

(2) Taxiing. Beginning March 12, 2019, this maneuver includes the following: (i) .......... B ......... ......... ........

Taxiing (in the case of a second in command proficiency check to the extent

practical from the second in command crew position), sailing, or docking procedures

in compliance with instructions issued by the appropriate traffic control authority

or by the person conducting the checks. (ii) Use of airport diagram (surface

movement chart). (iii) Obtaining appropriate clearance before crossing or entering

active runways. (iv) Observation of all surface movement guidance control markings

and lighting.......................................................................

(d)(1) Power-plant checks. As appropriate to the airplane type...................... .......... ........ ......... B ........ ..........

(1) Power-plant checks. As appropriate to the airplane type...................... .......... ........ ......... B ........ ..........

(d)(2) Beginning March 12, 2019, pre-takeoff procedures that include power-plant .......... ........ B ......... ........

(2) Beginning March 12, 2019, pre-takeoff procedures that include power-plant .......... ........ B ......... ........

checks, receipt of takeoff clearance and confirmation of aircraft location, and FMS

entry (if appropriate), for departure runway prior to crossing hold short line for

takeoff............................................................................II. Takeoff:

(a) Normal. One normal takeoff which, for the purpose of this maneuver, begins when .......... B* ......... ......... ........ ..........

the airplane is taxied into position on the runway to be used......................

(b) Instrument. One takeoff with instrument conditions simulated at or before B ........ B* ......... ........ ..........

reaching an altitude of 100[foot] above the airport elevation......................

(c)(1) Crosswind. Before March 12, 2019, one crosswind takeoff, if practicable, .......... B * ......... ......... ........

(1) Crosswind. Before March 12, 2019, one crosswind takeoff, if practicable, .......... B * ......... ......... ........

under the existing meteorological, airport, and traffic conditions.................

(c)(2) Beginning March 12, 2019, one crosswind takeoff with gusts, if practicable, .......... B * ......... ......... ........

(2) Beginning March 12, 2019, one crosswind takeoff with gusts, if practicable, .......... B * ......... ......... ........

under the existing meteorological, airport, and traffic conditions.................

(d) Powerplant failure. One takeoff with a simulated failure of the most critical .......... ........ B ......... ........ ..........

powerplant--.......................................................................

(1) At a point after V1 and before V2 that in the judgment of the person .......... ........ ......... ......... ........ ..........

conducting the check is appropriate to the airplane type under the prevailing

conditions;......................................................................

(2) At a point as close as possible after V1 when V1 and V2 or V1 and Vr are .......... ........ ......... ......... ........ ..........

identical; or....................................................................

(3) At the appropriate speed for non-transport category airplanes................. .......... ........ ......... ......... ........ ..........In an airplane group with aft fuselage-mounted engines this maneuver may be performed .......... ........ ......... ......... ........ ..........

in a non-visual simulator(e) Rejected. A rejected takeoff may be performed in an airplane during a normal .......... ........ ......... B* ........ B

takeoff run after reaching a reasonable speed determined by giving due consideration

to aircraft characteristics, runway length, surface conditions, wind direction and

velocity, brake heat energy, and any other pertinent factors that may adversely

affect safety or the airplane........................................................III. Instrument procedures:

(a) Area departure and area arrival. During each of these maneuvers the applicant B ........ ......... B ........ B*

must--.............................................................................

(1) Adhere to actual or simulated ATC clearances (including assigned radials); and .......... ........ ......... ......... ........ ..........

(2) Properly use available navigation facilities.................................. .......... ........ ......... ......... ........ ..........

Either area arrival or area departure, but not both, may be waived under Sec.

121.441(d)

(b) Holding. This maneuver includes entering, maintaining, and leaving holding B ........ ......... B ........ B

patterns. It may be performed in connection with either area departure or area

arrival............................................................................

(c) ILS and other instrument approaches. There must be the following:

(1) At least one normal ILS approach.............................................. B ........ B ......... ........ ..........

(2) At least one manually controlled ILS approach with a simulated failure of one B ........ ......... ......... ........ ..........

powerplant. The simulated failure should occur before initiating the final

approach course and must continue to touchdown or through the missed approach

procedure........................................................................

(3) At least one nonprecision approach procedure that is representative of the B ........ B ......... ........ ..........

nonprecision approach procedures that the certificate holder is likely to use....

(4) Demonstration of at least one nonprecision approach procedure on a letdown aid B ........ ......... ......... B ..........

other than the approach procedure performed under subparagraph (3) of this

paragraph that the certificate holder is approved to use.........................Each instrument approach must be performed according to any procedures and limitations

approved for the approach facility used. The instrument approach begins when the

airplane is over the initial approach fix for the approach procedure being used (or

turned over to the final approach controller in the case of GCA approach) and ends

when the airplane touches down on the runway or when transition to a missed approach

configuration is completed. Instrument conditions need not be simulated below

100[foot] above touchdown zone elevation

(d) Circling approaches. If the certificate holder is approved for circling minimums .......... ........ B* ......... ........ B*

below 1000-3, at least one circling approach must be made under the following

conditions--.......................................................................

(1) The portion of the approach to the authorized minimum circling approach B ........ ......... ......... ........ ..........

altitude must be made under simulated instrument conditions......................

(2) The approach must be made to the authorized minimum circling approach altitude .......... ........ ......... ......... ........ ..........

followed by a change in heading and the necessary maneuvering (by visual

reference) to maintain a flight path that permits a normal landing on a runway at

least 90[deg] from the final approach course of the simulated instrument portion

of the approach..................................................................

(3) The circling approach must be performed without excessive maneuvering, and .......... ........ ......... ......... ........ ..........

without exceeding the normal operating limits of the airplane. The angle of bank

should not exceed 30[deg]........................................................If local conditions beyond the control of the pilot prohibit the maneuver or prevent

it from being performed as required, it may be waived as provided in Sec.

121.441(d): Provided, however, That the maneuver may not be waived under this

provision for two successive proficiency checks. The circling approach maneuver is

not required for a second-in-command if the certificate holder's manual prohibits a

second-in-command from performing a circling approach in operations under this part

(e) Missed approach................................................................. .......... ........ ......... ......... ........ ..........

(1) Each pilot must perform at least one missed approach from an ILS approach..... .......... ........ B* ......... ........ ..........

(2) Each pilot in command must perform at least one additional missed approach.... .......... ........ P* ......... ........ ..........

A complete approved missed approach procedure must be accomplished at least once. At

the discretion of the person conducting the check a simulated powerplant failure may

be required during any of the missed approaches. These maneuvers may be performed

either independently or in conjunction with maneuvers required under Sections III or

V of this appendix. At least one missed approach must be performed in flightIV. Inflight Maneuvers:

(a) Steep turns. At least one steep turn in each direction must be performed. Each P ........ ......... P ........ P

steep turn must involve a bank angle of 45[deg] with a heading change of at least

180[deg] but not more than 360[deg]................................................

(b) Stall Prevention. For the purpose of this maneuver the approved recovery B ........ ......... B ........ B *

procedure must be initiated at the first indication of an impending stall (buffet,

stick shaker, aural warning). Except as provided below there must be at least three

stall prevention recoveries as follows:............................................

(1) One in the takeoff configuration (except where the airplane uses only a zero-

flap takeoff configuration).

(2) One in a clean configuration.

(3) One in a landing configuration.At the discretion of the person conducting the check, one stall prevention recovery

must be performed in one of the above configurations while in a turn with the bank

angle between 15[deg] and 30[deg]. Two out of the three stall prevention recoveries

required by this paragraph may be waived.If the certificate holder is authorized to dispatch or flight release the airplane

with a stall warning device inoperative the device may not be used during this

maneuver

(c) Specific flight characteristics. Recovery from specific flight characteristics .......... ........ ......... B ........ B

that are peculiar to the airplane type.............................................

(d) Powerplant failures. In addition to specific requirements for maneuvers with .......... ........ ......... B ........ ..........

simulated powerplant failures, the person conducting the check may require a

simulated powerplant failure at any time during the check..........................V. Landings and Approaches to Landings:Notwithstanding the authorizations for combining and waiving maneuvers and for the use

of a simulator, at least two actual landings (one to a full stop) must be made for

all pilot-in-command and initial second-in-command proficiency checks.Landings and approaches to landings must include the types listed below, but more than

one type may be combined where appropriate:

(a) Normal landing.................................................................. .......... B ......... ......... ........ ..........

(b) Landing in sequence from an ILS instrument approach except that if circumstances .......... B* ......... ......... ........ ..........

beyond the control of the pilot prevent an actual landing, the person conducting

the check may accept an approach to a point where in his judgment a landing to a

full stop could have been made.....................................................

(c)(1) Crosswind landing, if practical under existing meteorological, airport, and .......... B* ......... ......... ........ ..........

(1) Crosswind landing, if practical under existing meteorological, airport, and .......... B* ......... ......... ........ ..........

traffic conditions.................................................................

(c)(2) Beginning March 12, 2019, crosswind landing with gusts, if practical under .......... B * ......... ......... ........

(2) Beginning March 12, 2019, crosswind landing with gusts, if practical under .......... B * ......... ......... ........

existing meteorological, airport, and traffic conditions...........................

(d) Maneuvering to a landing with simulated powerplant failure as follows:

(1) In the case of 3-engine airplanes, maneuvering to a landing with an approved .......... ........ B* ......... ........ ..........

procedure that approximates the loss of two powerplants (center and one outboard

engine); or......................................................................

(2) In the case of other multiengine airplanes, maneuvering to a landing with a .......... ........ B* ......... ........ ..........

simulated failure of 50 percent of available powerplants, with the simulated loss

of power on one side of the airplane.............................................

Notwithstanding the requirements of subparagraphs (d) (1) and (2) of this paragraph,

in a proficiency check for other than a pilot-in-command, the simulated loss of power

may be only the most critical powerplant. However, if a pilot satisfies the

requirements of subparagraphs (d) (1) or (2) of this paragraph in a visual simulator,

he also must maneuver in flight to a landing with a simulated failure of the most

critical powerplant. In addition, a pilot-in-command may omit the maneuver required

by subparagraph (d)(1) or (d)(2) of this paragraph during a required proficiency

check or simulator course of training if he satisfactorily performed that maneuver

during the preceding proficiency check, or during the preceding approved simulator

course of training under the observation of a check airman, whichever was completed

later

(e) Except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, if the certificate holder .......... ........ B* ......... ........ ..........

is approved for circling minimums below 1000-3, a landing under simulated circling

approach conditions. However, when performed in an airplane, if circumstances

beyond the control of the pilot prevent a landing, the person conducting the check

may accept an approach to a point where, in his judgment, a landing to a full stop

could have been made...............................................................

(f) A rejected landing, including a normal missed approach procedure, that is .......... ........ B ......... ........ ..........

rejected approximately 50[foot] over the runway and approximately over the runway

threshold. This maneuver may be combined with instrument, circling, or missed

approach procedures, but instrument conditions need not be simulated below 100 feet

above the runway...................................................................VI. Normal and Abnormal Procedures:Each applicant must demonstrate the proper use of as many of the systems and devices

listed below as the person conducting the check finds are necessary to determine that

the person being checked has a practical knowledge of the use of the systems and

devices appropriate to the airplane type:

(a) Anti-icing and de-icing systems................................................. .......... ........ ......... B ........ ..........

(b) Auto-pilot systems.............................................................. .......... ........ ......... B ........ ..........

(c) Automatic or other approach aid systems......................................... .......... ........ ......... B ........ ..........

(d) Stall warning devices, stall avoidance devices, and stability augmentation .......... ........ ......... B ........ ..........

devices............................................................................

(e) Airborne radar devices.......................................................... .......... ........ ......... B ........ ..........

(f) Any other systems, devices, or aids available................................... .......... ........ ......... B ........ ..........

(g) Hydraulic and electrical system failures and malfunctions....................... .......... ........ ......... ......... B ..........

(h) Landing gear and flap systems failure or malfunction............................ .......... ........ ......... ......... B

(i) Failure of navigation or communications equipment............................... .......... ........ ......... B ........ ..........VII. Emergency Procedures:Each applicant must demonstrate the proper emergency procedures for as many of the

emergency situations listed below as the person conducting the check finds are

necessary to determine that the person being checked has an adequate knowledge of,

and ability to perform, such procedure:

(a) Fire in flight.................................................................. .......... ........ ......... B ........ ..........

(b) Smoke control................................................................... .......... ........ ......... B ........ ..........

(c) Rapid decompression............................................................. .......... ........ ......... B ........ ..........

(d) Emergency descent............................................................... .......... ........ ......... B ........ ..........

(e) Any other emergency procedures outlined in the appropriate approved Airplane .......... ........ ......... B ........ ..........

Flight Manual......................................................................-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- [Doc. No. 9509, 35 FR 99, Jan. 3, 1970, as amended by Amdt. 121-80, 36 FR 19362, Oct. 5, 1971; Amdt. 121-91, 37 FR 10730, May 27, 1972; Amdt. 121-92, 37 FR 12717, June 28, 1972; Amdt. 121-108, 38 FR 35448, Dec. 28, 1973; Amdt. 121-136, 42 FR 43389, Aug. 29, 1977; Amdt. 121-366, 78 FR 67844, Nov. 12, 2013]

Sec. Appendix G to Part 121--Doppler Radar and Inertial Navigation

System (INS): Request for Evaluation; Equipment and Equipment

Installation; Training Program; Equipment Accuracy and Reliability;

Evaluation Program

(a) An applicant for authority to use a Doppler Radar or Inertial Navigation System must submit a request for evaluation of the system to the Flight Standards District Office or International Field Office charged with the overall inspection of its operations 30 days prior to the start of evaluation flights.

(b) The application must contain:

(1) A summary of experience with the system showing to the satisfaction of the Administrator a history of the accuracy and reliability of the system proposed to be used.

(2) A training program curriculum for initial approval under Sec. 121.405.

(3) A maintenance program for compliance with subpart L of this part.

(4) A description of equipment installation.

(5) Proposed revisions to the Operations Manual outlining all normal and emergency procedures relative to use of the proposed system, including detailed methods for continuing the navigational function with partial or complete equipment failure, and methods for determining the most accurate system when an unusually large divergence between systems occurs. For the purpose of this appendix, a large divergence is a divergence that results in a track that falls beyond clearance limits.

(6) Any proposed revisions to the minimum equipment list with adequate justification therefor.

(7) A list of operations to be conducted using the system, containing an analysis of each with respect to length, magnetic compass reliability, availability of en route aids, and adequacy of gateway and terminal radio facilities to support the system. For the purpose of this appendix, a gateway is a specific navigational fix where use of long range navigation commences or terminates.

(a) Inertial Navigation and Doppler Radar Systems must be installed in accordance with applicable airworthiness requirements.

(b) Cockpit arrangement must be visible and useable by either pilot seated at his duty station.

(c) The equipment must provide, by visual, mechanical, or electrical output signals, indications of the invalidity of output data upon the occurrence of probable failures or malfunctions within the system.

(d) A probable failure or malfunction within the system must not result in loss of the aircraft's required navigation capability.

(e) The alignment, updating, and navigation computer functions of the system must not be invalidated by normal aircraft power interruptions and transients.

(f) The system must not be the source of cause of objectionable radio frequency interference, and must not be adversely affected by radio frequency interference from other aircraft systems.

(g) The FAA-approved airplane flight manual, or supplement thereto, must include pertinent material as required to define the normal and emergency operating procedures and applicable operating limitations associated with INS and Doppler performance (such as maximum latitude at which ground alignment capability is provided, or deviations between systems).

(a) If an applicant elects to use an Inertial Navigation System it must be at least a dual system (including navigational computers and reference units). At least two systems must be operational at takeoff. The dual system may consist of either two INS units, or one INS unit and one Doppler Radar unit.

(b) Each Inertial Navigation System must incorporate the following:

(1) Valid ground alignment capability at all latitudes appropriate for intended use of the installation.

(2) A display of alignment status or a ready to navigate light showing completed alignment to the flight crew.

(3) The present position of the airplane in suitable coordinates.

(4) Information relative to destinations or waypoint positions:

(i) The information needed to gain and maintain a desired track and to determine deviations from the desired track.

(ii) The information needed to determine distance and time to go to the next waypoint or destination.

(c) For INS installations that do not have memory or other inflight alignment means, a separate electrical power source (independent of the main propulsion system) must be provided which can supply, for at least 5 minutes, enough power (as shown by analysis or as demonstrated in the airplane) to maintain the INS in such condition that its full capability is restored upon the reactivation of the normal electrical supply.

(d) The equipment must provide such visual, mechanical, or electrical output signals as may be required to permit the flight crew to detect probable failures or malfunctions in the system.

(a) If an applicant elects to use a Doppler Radar System it must be at least a dual system (including dual antennas or a combined antenna designed for multiple operation), except that:

(1) A single operating transmitter with a standby capable of operation may be used in lieu of two operating transmitters.

(2) Single heading source information to all installations may be utilized, provided a compass comparator system is installed and operational procedures call for frequent cross-checks of all compass heading indicators by crewmembers. The dual system may consist of either two Doppler Radar units or one Doppler Radar unit and one INS unit.

(b) At least two systems must be operational at takeoff.

(c) As determined by the Administrator and specified in the certificate holder's operations specifications, other navigational aids may be required to update the Doppler Radar for a particular operation. These may include Loran, Consol, DME, VOR, ADF, ground-based radar, and airborne weather radar. When these aids are required, the cockpit arrangement must be such that all controls are accessible to each pilot seated at his duty station.

5. Training programs. The initial training program for Doppler Radar and Inertial Navigation Systems must include the following:

(a) Duties and responsibilities of flight crewmembers, dispatchers, and maintenance personnel.

(b) For pilots, instruction in the following:

(1) Theory and procedures, limitations, detection of malfunctions, preflight and inflight testing, and cross-checking methods.

(2) The use of computers, an explanation of all systems, compass limitations at high latitudes, a review of navigation, flight planning, and applicable meteorology.

(3) The methods for updating by means of reliable fixes.

(4) The actual plotting of fixes.

(c) Abnormal and emergency procedures.

(a) Each Inertial Navigation System must meet the following accuracy requirements, as appropriate:

(1) For flights up to 10 hours' duration, no greater than 2 nautical miles per hour of circular error on 95 percent of system flights completed is permitted.

(2) For flights over 10 hours' duration, a tolerance of 20 miles cross-track and 25 miles along-track on 95 percent of system flights completed is permitted.

(b) Compass heading information to the Doppler Radar must be maintained to an accuracy of 1[deg] and total system deviations must not exceed 2[deg]. When free gyro techniques are used, procedures shall be utilized to ensure that an equivalent level of heading accuracy and total system deviation is attained.

(c) Each Doppler Radar System must meet accuracy requirements of 20 miles cross-track and 25 miles along-track for 95 percent of the system flights completed. Updating is permitted. A system that does not meet the requirements of this section will be considered a failed system.

(a) Approval by evaluation must be requested as a part of the application for operational approval of a Doppler Radar or Inertial Navigation System.

(b) The applicant must provide sufficient flights which show to the satisfaction of the Administrator the applicant's ability to use cockpit navigation in his operation.

(c) The Administrator bases his evaluation on the following:

(1) Adequacy of operational procedures.

(2) Operational accuracy and reliability of equipment and feasibility of the system with regard to proposed operations.

(3) Availability of terminal, gateway, area, and en route ground-based aids, if required, to support the self-contained system.

(4) Acceptability of cockpit workload.

(5) Adequacy of flight crew qualifications.

(6) Adequacy of maintenance training and availability of spare parts. After successful completion of evaluation demonstrations, FAA approval is indicated by issuance of amended operations specifications and en route flight procedures defining the new operation. Approval is limited to those operations for which the adequacy of the equipment and the feasibility of cockpit navigation has been satisfactorily demonstrated. [Doc. No. 10204, 37 FR 6464, Mar. 30, 1972, as amended by Amdt. 121-207, 54 FR 39293, Sept. 25, 1989]

Sec. Appendix H to Part 121--Advanced Simulation

This appendix provides guidelines and a means for achieving flightcrew training in advanced airplane simulators. The requirements in this appendix are in addition to the simulator approval requirements in Sec. 121.407. Each simulator used under this appendix must be approved as a Level B, C, or D simulator, as appropriate.

Advanced Simulation Training Program

For an operator to conduct Level C or D training under this appendix all required simulator instruction and checks must be conducted under an advanced simulation training program approved by the Administrator for the operator. This program must also ensure that all instructors and check airmen used in appendix H training and checking are highly qualified to provide the training required in the training program. The advanced simulation training program must include the following:

1. The operator's initial, transition, upgrade, and recurrent simulator training programs and its procedures for re-establishing recency of experience in the simulator.

2. How the training program will integrate Level B, C, and D simulators with other simulators and training devices to maximize the total training, checking, and certification functions.

3. Documentation that each instructor and check airman has served for at least 1 year in that capacity in a certificate holder's approved program or has served for at least 1 year as a pilot in command or second in command in an airplane of the group in which that pilot is instructing or checking.

4. A procedure to ensure that each instructor and check airman actively participates in either an approved regularly scheduled line flying program as a flight crewmember or an approved line observation program in the same airplane type for which that person is instructing or checking.

5. A procedure to ensure that each instructor and check airman is given a minimum of 4 hours of training each year to become familiar with the operator's advanced simulation training program, or changes to it, and to emphasize their respective roles in the program. Training for simulator instructors and check airmen must include training policies and procedures, instruction methods and techniques, operation of simulator controls (including environmental and trouble panels), limitations of the simulator, and minimum equipment required for each course of training.

6. A special Line Oriented Flight Training (LOFT) program to facilitate the transition from the simulator to line flying. This LOFT program must consist of at least a 4-hour course of training for each flightcrew. It also must contain at least two representative flight segments of the operator's route. One of the flight segments must contain strictly normal operating procedures from push back at one airport to arrival at another. Another flight segment must contain training in appropriate abnormal and emergency flight operations. After March 12, 2019, the LOFT must provide an opportunity for the pilot to demonstrate workload management and pilot monitoring skills.

Level B

Training and Checking Permitted

1. Recency of experience (Sec. 121.439).

2. Night takeoffs and landings (Part 121, Appendix E).

3. Landings in a proficiency check without the landing on the line requirements (Sec. 121.441).

Level C

Training and Checking Permitted

1. For all pilots, transition training between airplanes in the same group, and for a pilot in command the certification check required by Sec. 61.153 of this chapter.

2. Upgrade to pilot-in-command training and the certification check when the pilot--

a. Has previously qualified as second in command in the equipment to which the pilot is upgrading;

b. Has at least 500 hours of actual flight time while serving as second in command in an airplane of the same group; and

c. Is currently serving as second in command in an airplane in this same group.

3. Initial pilot-in-command training and the certification check when the pilot--

a. Is currently serving as second in command in an airplane of the same group;

b. Has a minimum of 2,500 flight hours as second in command in an airplane of the same group; and

c. Has served as second in command on at least two airplanes of the same group.

4. For all second-in-command pilot applicants who meet the aeronautical experience requirements of Sec. 61.159 of this chapter in the airplane, the initial and upgrade training and checking required by this part, and the certification check requirements of Sec. 61.153 of this chapter.

5. For all pilots, the extended envelope training required by Sec. 121.423 of this part.

Level D

Training and Checking Permitted

Except for the requirements listed in the next sentence, all pilot flight training and checking required by this part and the certification check requirements of Sec. 61.153(h) of this chapter. The line check required by Sec. 121.440, the static airplane requirements of appendix E of this part, and the operating experience requirements of Sec. 121.434 must still be performed in the airplane. [Doc. No. FAA-2002-12461, 71 FR 63640, Oct. 30, 2006, as amended by Amdt. 121-365, 78 FR 42379, July 15, 2013; Amdt. 121-366, 78 FR 67846, Nov. 12, 2013]

Sec. Appendixes I-J to Part 121 [Reserved]

Sec. Appendix K to Part 121--Performance Requirements for Certain

Turbopropeller Powered Airplanes

1. Applicability. This appendix specifies requirements for the following turbopropeller powered airplanes that must comply with the Airplane Performance Operating Limitations in Sec. Sec. 121.189 through 121.197:

a. After December 20, 2010, each airplane manufactured before March 20, 1997 and type certificated in the:

i. Normal category before July 1, 1970, and meets special conditions issued by the Administrator for airplanes intended for use in operations under part 135 of this chapter.

ii. Normal category before July 19, 1970, and meets the additional airworthiness standards in SFAR No. 23 of 14 CFR part 23.

iii. Normal category, and complies with the additional airworthiness standards in appendix A of part 135 of this chapter.

(a) or 1.(b) of SFAR No. 41 of 14 CFR part 21.

b. After March 20, 1997, each airplane:

i. Type certificated prior to March 29, 1995, in the commuter category.

ii. Manufactured on or after March 20, 1997, and that was type certificated in the normal category, and complies with the requirements described in paragraphs 1.a.i through iii of this appendix.

2. Background. Sections 121.157 and 121.173(b) require that the airplanes operated under this part and described in paragraph 1 of this appendix, comply with the Airplane Performance Operating Limitations in Sec. Sec. 121.189 through 121.197. Airplanes described in Sec. 121.157(f) and paragraph 1.a of this appendix must comply on and after December 20, 2010. Airplanes described in Sec. 121.157(e) and paragraph 1.b of this appendix must comply on and after March 20, 1997. (Airplanes type certificated in the normal category, and in accordance with SFAR No. 41 of 14 CFR part 21, as described in paragraph 1.a.iv of this appendix, may not be produced after October 17, 1991.)

3. References. Unless otherwise specified, references in this appendix to sections of part 23 of this chapter are to those sections of 14 CFR part 23, as amended by Amendment No. 23-45 (August 6, 1993, 58 FR 42156).

Performance

4. Interim Airplane Performance Operating Limitations.

a. Until December 20, 2010, airplanes described in paragraph 1.a of this appendix may continue to comply with the requirements in subpart I of part 135 and Sec. 135.181(a)(2) of this chapter that apply to small, nontransport category airplanes.

b. Until March 20, 1997, airplanes described in paragraph 1.b.i of this appendix may continue to comply with the requirements in subpart I of part 135 of this chapter that apply to commuter category airplanes.

5. Final Airplane Performance Operating Limitations.

a. Through an amended type certification program or a supplemental type certification program, each airplane described in paragraph 1.a and 1.b.ii of this appendix must be shown to comply with the commuter category performance requirements specified in this appendix, which are included in part 23 of this chapter. Each new revision to a current airplane performance operating limitation for an airplane that is or has been demonstrated to comply, must also be approved by the Administrator. An airplane approved to the requirements of section 1.(b) of SFAR No. 41 of 14 CFR part 21, as described in paragraph 1.a.iv of this appendix, and that has been demonstrated to comply with the additional requirements of section 4.(c) of SFAR No. 41 of 14 CFR part 21 and International Civil Aviation Organization Annex 8 (available from the FAA, 800 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20591), will be considered to be in compliance with the commuter category performance requirements.

b. Each turbopropeller powered airplane subject to this appendix must be demonstrated to comply with the airplane performance operating limitation requirements of this chapter specified as follows:

i. Section 23.45 Performance General.

ii. Section 23.51 Takeoff.

iii. Section 23.53 Takeoff speeds.

iv. Section 23.55 Accelerate stop distance.

v. Section 23.57 Takeoff path.

vi. Section 23.59 Takeoff distance and takeoff run.

vii. Section 23.61 Takeoff flight path.

viii. Section 23.65 Climb: All engines operating.

ix. Section 23.67 Climb: one engine inoperative.

x. Section 23.75 Landing.

xi. Section 23.77 Balked landing.

xii. Sections 23.1581 through 23.1589 Airplane flight manual and approved manual material.

6. Operation. After compliance with the final airplane performance operating limitations requirements has been demonstrated and added to the Airplane Flight Manual performance data of the affected airplane, that airplane must be operated in accordance with the performance limitations of Sec. Sec. 121.189 through 121.197. [Doc. No. 28154, 60 FR 65936, Dec. 20, 1995, as amended by Doc. No. OST-2002-13435]

Sec. Appendix L to Part 121--Type Certification Regulations Made

Previously Effective

Appendix L lists regulations in this part that require compliance with standards contained in superseded type certification regulations that continue to apply to certain transport category airplanes. The tables set out citations to current CFR section, applicable aircraft, superseded type certification regulation and applicable time periods, and the CFR edition and Federal Register documents where the regulation having prior effect is found. Copies of all superseded regulations may be obtained at the Federal Aviation Administration Law Library, Room 924, 800 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC. ------------------------------------------------------------------------

Provisions: CFR/FR

Part 121 section Applicable aircraft references------------------------------------------------------------------------Sec. 121.312(a)(1)(i)........ Transport category; Heat release rate

or nontransport testing. 14 CFR

category type 25.853(d) in

certificated effect March 6,

before January 1, 1995: 14 CFR

1965; passenger parts 1 to 59,

capacity of 20 or Revised as of

more; manufactured January 1, 1995,

prior to August and amended by

20, 1990. Amdt. 25-83, 60

FR 6623, February

2, 1995.

Formerly 14 CFR

25.853(a-1) in

effect August 20,

1986: 14 CFR

parts 1 to 59,

Revised as of

January 1, 1986.Sec. 121.312(a)(1)(ii)....... Transport category; Heat release rate

or nontransport and smoke

category type testing. 14 CFR

certificated 25.853(d) in

before January 1, effect March 6,

1965; passenger 1995: 14 CFR

capacity of 20 or parts 1 to 59,

more; manufactured Revised as of

after August 19, January 1, 1995,

1990. and amended by

Amdt. 25-83, 60

FR 6623, February

2, 1995.

Formerly 14 CFR

25.853(a-1) in

effect September

26, 1988: 14 CFR

parts 1 to 59,

Revised as of

January 1, 1988,

and amended by

Amdt. 25-66, 53

FR 32584, August

25, 1988Sec. 121.312(a)(2)(i)........ Transport category; Provisions of 14

or nontransport CFR 25.853 in

category type effect on April

certificate before 30, 1972: 14 CFR

January 1, 1965; parts 1 to 59,

application for Revised as of

type certificate January 1, 1972.

filed prior to May

1, 1972;

substantially

complete

replacement of

cabin interior on

or after May 1,

1972.Sec. 121.312(a)(3)(i)........ Transport category Heat release rate

type certificated testing. 14 CFR

after January 1, 25.853(d) in

1958; nontransport effect March 6,

category type 1995: 14 CFR

certificated after parts 1 to 59,

January 1, 1958, Revised as of

but before January January 1, 1995;

1, 1965; passenger and amended by

capacity of 20 or \n25-83, 60 FR

more; 6623, February 2,

substantially 1995.

complete Formerly 14 CFR

replacement of the 25.853(a-1) in

cabin interior on effect August 20,

or after March 6, 1986: 14 CFR

1995. parts 1 to 59,

Revised as of

January 1, 1986.Sec. 121.312(a)(3)(ii)....... Transport category Heat release rate

type certificated and smoke

after January 1, testing. 14 CFR

1958; nontransport 25.853(d) in

category type effect March 6,

certificated after 1995; 14 CFR

January 1, 1958, parts 1 to 59,

but before January Revised as of

1, 1965; passenger January 1, 1995;

capacity of 20 or and amended by

more; \n25-83, 60 FR

substantially 6623, February 2,

complete 1995.

replacement of the Formerly 14 CFR

cabin interior on Sec. 25.853(a-

or after August 1) in effect

20, 1990. September 26,

1988: CFR, Title

14, Parts 1 to

59, Revised as of

January 1, 1988,

and amended by

\n25-66, 53 FR

32584, August 25,

1988.Sec. 121.312(b) (1) and (2).. Transport category Seat cushions. 14

airplane type CFR 25.853(c)

certificated after effective on

January 1, 1958; November 26,

Nontransport 1984: 14 CFR

category airplane parts 1 to 59,

type certificated Revised as of

after December 31, January 1, 1984,

1964. and amended by

\n25-59, 49 FR

43188, October

26, 1984.Sec. 121.312(c).............. Airplane type Compartment

certificated in interior

accordance with requirements. 14

SFAR No. 41; CFR 25.853(a) in

maximum effect March 6,

certificated 1995: 14 CFR

takeoff weight in parts 1 to 59,

excess of 12,500 Revised as of

pounds. January 1, 1995,

and amended by

\n25-83, 60 FR

6623, February 2,

1995.

Formerly 14 CFR

25.853(a), (b-1),

(b-2), and (b-3)

in effect on

September 26,

1978: 14 CFR

parts 1 to 59,

Revised as of

January 1, 1978.Sec. 121.314(a).............. Transport category Class C or D cargo

airplanes type or baggage

certificated after compartment

January 1, 1958. definition, 14

CFR 25.857 in

effect on June

16, 1986, 14 CFR

parts 1 to 59,

Revised 1/1/97,

and amended by

Amendment 25-60,

51 FR 18243, May

16, 1986.------------------------------------------------------------------------ [Doc. No. 28154, 60 FR 65936, Dec. 20, 1995, as amended by Amdt. 121-269, 63 FR 8049, Feb. 17, 1998]

Sec. Appendix M to Part 121--Airplane Flight Recorder Specifications

The recorded values must meet the designated range, resolution and accuracy requirements during static and dynamic conditions. Dynamic condition means

the parameter is experiencing change at the maximum rate attainable, including the maximum rate of reversal. All data recorded must be correlated in

time to within one second.--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Accuracy (sensor Seconds per sampling

Parameters Range input) interval Resolution Remarks--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------1. Time or relative times 24 Hrs, 0 to 4095..... 0.125% per hour. when available.

Count increments

each 4 seconds of

system operation.2. Pressure Altitude............... -1000 ft to max 100 to 700 air data computer

ft (see table, TSO when practicable.

C124a or TSO C51a).3. Indicated airspeed or Calibrated 50 KIAS or minimum 5% and 3%. air data computer

when practicable.4. Heading (Primary flight crew 0-360[deg] and 2[deg]. heading can be

``mag''. selected as the

primary heading

reference, a

discrete indicating

selection must be

recorded.5. Normal acceleration (vertical) -3g to +6g............ 1% of max range

excluding datum error

of 5%.6. Pitch Attitude.................. 75[deg]. eq>2[deg]. airplanes operated 0.25 is recommended.

under Sec.

121.344(f).7. Roll attitude \2\............... 180[deg]. eq>2[deg]. airplanes operated 0.5 is recommended.

under Sec.

121.344(f).8. Manual Radio Transmitter Keying On-Off (Discrete)..... ...................... 1.................... ..................... Preferably each crew

or CVR/DFDR synchronization None.................. member but one

reference. discrete acceptable

for all transmission

provided the CVR/FDR

system complies with

TSO C124a CVR

synchronization

requirements

(paragraph 4.2.1 ED-

55).9. Thrust/power on each engine-- Full range forward.... 2%. (e.g. EPR, N1 or

Torque, NP) as

appropriate to the

particular engine

being recorded to

determine power in

forward and reverse

thrust, including

potential overspeed

condition.10. Autopilot Engagement........... Discrete ``on'' or ...................... 1.................... ..................... .....................

``off''.11. Longitudinal Acceleration...... 1g. eq>1.5% max. range

excluding datum error

of 5%.12a. Pitch control(s) position Full Range............ 2[deg] unless airplanes operated have a flight

higher accuracy under Sec. control breakaway

uniquely required. 121.344(f). capability that

allows either pilot

to operate the

controls

independently,

record both control

inputs. The control

inputs may be

sampled alternately

once per second to

produce the sampling

interval of 0.5 or

0.25, as applicable.12b. Pitch control(s) position (fly- Full Range............ 2[deg] unless airplanes operated

higher accuracy under Sec.

uniquely required. 121.344(f).

13a. Lateral control position(s) Full Range............ 2[deg] unless airplanes operated have a flight

higher accuracy under Sec. control breakaway

uniquely required. 121.344(f). capability that

allows either pilot

to operate the

controls

independently,

record both control

inputs. The control

inputs may be

sampled alternately

once per second to

produce the sampling

interval of 0.5 or

0.25, as applicable.13b. Lateral control position(s) Full Range............ 2[deg] unless airplanes operated

higher accuracy under Sec.

uniquely required. 121.344(f).14a. Yaw control position(s) Full Range............ 2[deg] unless have a flight

higher accuracy control breakaway

uniquely required. capability that

allows either pilot

to operate the

controls

independently,

record both control

inputs. The control

inputs may be

sampled alternately

once per second to

produce the sampling

interval of 0.5.14b. Yaw control position(s) (fly- Full Range............ 2[deg] unless

higher accuracy

uniquely required.15. Pitch control surface(s) Full Range............ 2[deg] unless airplanes operated with multiple or

higher accuracy under Sec. split surfaces, a

uniquely required. 121.344(f). suitable combination

of inputs is

acceptable in lieu

of recording each

surface separately.

The control surfaces

may be sampled

alternately once per

second to produce

the sampling

interval of 0.5 or

0.25, as applicable.16. Lateral control surface(s) Full Range............ 2[deg] unless airplanes operated combination of

higher accuracy under Sec. surface position

uniquely required. 121.344(f). sensors is

acceptable in lieu

of recording each

surface separately.

The control surfaces

may be sampled

alternately to

produce the sampling

interval of 0.5 or

0.25, as applicable.17. Yaw control surface(s) Full Range............ 2[deg] unless multiple or split

higher accuracy surfaces, a suitable

uniquely required. combination of

surface position

sensors is

acceptable in lieu

of recording each

surface separately.

The control surfaces

may be sampled

alternately to

produce the sampling

interval of 0.5.18. Lateral Acceleration........... 1g. eq>1.5% max. range

excluding datum error

of 5%.19. Pitch Trim Surface Position.... Full Range............ 3[deg] Unless

Higher Accuracy

Uniquely Required.

20. Trailing Edge Flap or Cockpit Full Range or Each 3[deg] or as cockpit control may

Pilot's indicator. each be sampled at 4

second intervals, to

give a data point

every 2 seconds.21. Leading Edge Flap or Cockpit Full Range or Each 3[deg] or as or flap position and

Pilot's indicator and cockpit control may

sufficient to each be sampled at 4

determine each second intervals, so

discrete position. as to give a data

point every 2

seconds.22. Each Thrust Reverser Position Stowed, In Transit, ...................... 1 (per engine)....... ..................... Turbo-jet--2

(or equivalent for propeller and Reverse discretes enable the

airplane). (Discrete). 3 states to be

determined.

Turbo-prop--discrete.23. Ground spoiler position or Full range or each 2[deg] Unless airplanes operated

higher accuracy under Sec.

uniquely required. 121.344(f).24. Outside Air Temperature or -50 [deg]C to +90 2 [deg]C.25. Autopilot/Autothrottle/AFCS A suitable combination ...................... 1.................... ..................... Discretes should show

Mode and Engagement Status. of discretes. which systems are

engaged and which

primary modes are

controlling the

flight path and

speed of the

aircraft.26. Radio Altitude \14\............ -20 ft to 2,500 ft.... 2 ft or 3% radio altimeter

whichever is greater should be recorded,

below 500 ft and but arranged so that

5% above 500 ft. recorded each

second.27. Localizer Deviation, MLS 400 Microamps or minus3% 3 operations. Each

available sensor recommended. system should be

range as installed. recorded but

62[deg]. least one is

recorded each

second. It is not

necessary to record

ILS and MLS at the

same time, only the

approach aid in use

need be recorded.28. Glideslope Deviation, MLS 400 Microamps or recommended. 3 operations. Each

Deviation. available sensor system should be

range as installed recorded but

0.9 to +30[deg]....... arranged so that at

least one is

recorded each

second. It is not

necessary to record

ILS and MLS at the

same time, only the

approach aid in use

need be recorded.29. Marker Beacon Passage.......... Discrete ``on'' or ...................... 1.................... ..................... A single discrete is

``off''. acceptable for all

markers.30. Master Warning................. Discrete.............. ...................... 1.................... ..................... Record the master

warning and record

each ``red'' warning

that cannot be

determined from

other parameters or

from the cockpit

voice recorder.31. Air/ground sensor (primary Discrete ``air'' or ...................... 1 (0.25 recommended).

airplane system reference nose or ``ground''.

main gear).

32. Angle of Attack (If measured As installed.......... As installed.......... 2 or 0.5 for 0.3% of full range... If left and right

directly). airplanes operated sensors are

under Sec. available, each may

121.344(f). be recorded at 4 or

1 second intervals,

as appropriate, so

as to give a data

point at 2 seconds

or 0.5 second, as

required.33. Hydraulic Pressure Low, Each Discrete or available 5%.

or ``normal''.34. Groundspeed.................... As Installed.......... Most Accurate Systems 1.................... 0.2% of full range...

Installed.35. GPWS (ground proximity warning Discrete ``warning'' ...................... 1.................... ..................... A suitable

system). or ``off''. combination of

discretes unless

recorder capacity is

limited in which

case a single

discrete for all

modes is acceptable.36. Landing Gear Position or Discrete.............. ...................... 4.................... ..................... A suitable

Landing gear cockpit control combination of

selection. discretes should be

recorded.37. Drift Angle.\15\............... As installed.......... As installed.......... 4.................... 0.1[deg]............. .....................38. Wind Speed and Direction....... As installed.......... As installed.......... 4.................... 1 knot, and 1.0[deg].39. Latitude and Longitude......... As installed.......... As installed.......... 4.................... 0.002[deg], or as Provided by the

installed. Primary Navigation

System Reference.

Where capacity

permits Latitude/

longitude resolution

should be

0.0002[deg].40. Stick shaker and pusher Discrete(s) ``on'' or ...................... 1.................... ..................... A suitable

activation. ``off''. combination of

discretes to

determine

activation.41. Windshear Detection............ Discrete ``warning'' ...................... 1....................

or ``off''.42. Throttle/power Leverl Full Range............ 2%. non-mechanically

linked cockpit

engine controls.43. Additional Engine Parameters... As installed.......... As installed.......... Each engine each 2% of full range..... Where capacity

second. permits, the

preferred priority

is indicated

vibration level, N2,

EGT, Fuel Flow, Fuel

Cut-off lever

position and N3,

unless engine

manufacturer

recommends

otherwise.44. Traffic Alert and Collision Discretes............. As installed.......... 1.................... ..................... A suitable

Avoidance System (TCAS). combination of

discretes should be

recorded to

determine the status

of--Combined

Control, Vertical

Control, Up

Advisory, and Down

Advisory. (ref.

ARINC Characteristic

735 Attachment 6E,

TCAS VERTICAL RA

DATA OUTPUT WORD.)45. DME 1 and 2 Distance........... 0-200 NM.............. As installed.......... 4.................... 1 NM................. 1 mile46. Nav 1 and 2 Selected Frequency. Full Range............ As installed.......... 4.................... ..................... Sufficient to

determine selected

frequency47. Selected barometric setting.... Full Range............ 5%.48. Selected Altitude.............. Full Range............ 5%.

49. Selected speed................. Full Range............ 5%.50. Selected Mach.................. Full Range............ 5%.51. Selected vertical speed........ Full Range............ 5%.52. Selected heading............... Full Range............ 5%.53. Selected flight path........... Full Range............ 5%.54. Selected decision height....... Full Range............ 5%.55. EFIS display format............ Discrete(s)........... ...................... 4.................... ..................... Discretes should show

the display system

status (e.g., off,

normal, fail,

composite, sector,

plan, nav aids,

weather radar,

range, copy.56. Multi-function/Engine Alerts Discrete(s)........... ...................... 4.................... ..................... Discretes should show

Display format. the display system

status (e.g., off,

normal, fail, and

the identity of

display pages for

emergency

procedures, need not

be recorded.57. Thrust command.\17\............ Full Range............ 2%.58. Thrust target.................. Full Range............ 2%.59. Fuel quantity in CG trim tank.. Full Range............ 5%.60. Primary Navigation System Discrete GPS, INS, VOR/ ...................... 4.................... ..................... A suitable

Reference. DME, MLS, Loran C, combination of

Omega, Localizer discretes to

Glideslope. determine the

Primary Navigation

System reference.61. Ice Detection.................. Discrete ``ice'' or ...................... 4

``no ice''.62. Engine warning each engine Discrete.............. ...................... 1

vibration.63. Engine warning each engine over Discrete.............. ...................... 1

temp.64. Engine warning each engine oil Discrete.............. ...................... 1

pressure low.65. Engine warning each engine over Discrete.............. ...................... 1

speed.66. Yaw Trim Surface Position...... Full Range............ 3% Unless Higher

Accuracy Uniquely

Required.67. Roll Trim Surface Position..... Full Range............ 3% Unless Higher

Accuracy Uniquely

Required.68. Brake Pressure (left and right) As installed.......... 5%. effort applied by

pilots or by

autobrakes.69. Brake Pedal Application (left Discrete or Analog 5% (Analog). applied by pilots.

``off''.70. Yaw or sideslip angle.......... Full Range............ 5%.71. Engine bleed valve position.... Discrete ``open'' or ...................... 4

``closed''.72. De-icing or anti-icing system Discrete ``on'' or ...................... 4

selection. ``off''.

73. Computed center of gravity..... Full Range............ 5%.74. AC electrical bus status....... Discrete ``power'' or ...................... 4.................... ..................... Each bus.

``off''.75. DC electrical bus status....... Discrete ``power'' or ...................... 4.................... ..................... Each bus.

``off''.76 APU bleed valve position........ Discrete ``open'' or ...................... 4

``closed''.77. Hydraulic Pressure (each Full range............ 5%.78. Loss of cabin pressure......... Discrete ``loss'' or ...................... 1....................

``normal''.79. Computer failure (critical Discrete ``fail'' or ...................... 4....................

flight and engine control systems). ``normal''.80. Heads-up display (when an Discrete(s) ``on'' or ...................... 4

information source is installed). ``off''.81. Para-visual display (when an Discrete(s) ``on'' or

information source is installed). ``off''.82. Cockpit trim control input Full Range............ 5%. means for control

inputs are not

available, cockpit

display trim

positions should be

recorded.83. Cockpit trim control input Full Range............ 5%. means for control

inputs are not

available, cockpit

display trim

position should be

recorded.84. Cockpit trim control input Full range............ 5%. means for control

input are not

available, cockpit

display trim

positions should be

recorded.85. Trailing edge flap and cockpit Full Range............ 5%. and cockpit flap

control position may

each be sampled

alternately at 4

second intervals to

provide a sample

each 0.5 second.86. Leading edge flap and cockpit Full Range or Discrete 5%.87. Ground spoiler position and Full range or discrete 5%.

88. All cockpit flight control Full range............ 5%. flight control

control column, rudder pedal) \18 minus70 systems, where

19\. lbs. flight control

Control column 85 a function of the

lbs. displacement of the

Rudder pedal 165 only, it is not

lbs. necessary to record

this parameter. For

airplanes that have

a flight control

break away

capability that

allows either pilot

to operate the

control

independently,

record both control

force inputs. The

control force inputs

may be sampled

alternately once per

2 seconds to produce

the sampling

interval of 1.89. Yaw damper status.............. Discrete (on/off)..... 0.5...................90. Yaw damper command............. Full range............ As installed.......... 0.5.................. 1% of full range.....91. Standby rudder valve status.... Discrete.............. 0.5...................--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------\1\ For A300 B2/B4 airplanes, resolution=6 seconds.\2\ For A330/A340 series airplanes, resolution=0.703[deg].\3\ For A318/A319/A320/A321 series airplanes, resolution=0.275% (0.088[deg]0.064[deg]).

For A330/A340 series airplanes, resolution=2.20%(0.703[deg]0.064[deg]).\4\ For A318/A319/A320/A321 series airplanes, resolution=0.22% (0.088[deg]0.080[deg]).

For A330/A340 series airplanes, resolution=1.76% (0.703[deg]0.080[deg]).\5\ For A330/A340 series airplanes, resolution = 1.18% (0.703[deg] 0.120[deg]).

For A330/A340 series airplanes, seconds per sampling interval = 1.\6\ For A330/A340 series airplanes, resolution=0.783% (0.352[deg]0.090[deg]).\7\ For A330/A340 series airplanes, aileron resolution = 0.704% (0.352[deg]0.100[deg]). For A330/A340 series airplanes, spoiler resolution =

1.406% (0.703[deg]0.100[deg]).\8\ For A330/A340 series airplanes, resolution=0.30% (0.176[deg]0.12[deg]).

For A330/A340 series airplanes, seconds per sampling interval=1.\9\ For B-717 series airplanes, resolution = .005g. For Dassault F900C/F900EX airplanes, resolution = .007g.\10\ For A330/A340 series airplanes, resolution=1.05% (0.250[deg]0.120[deg]).\11\ For A330/A340 series airplanes, resolution = 1.05% (0.250[deg]0.120[deg]). For A300 B2/B4 series airplanes, resolution = 0.92%

(0.230[deg]0.125[deg]).\12\ For A330/A340 series airplanes, spoiler resolution = 1.406% (0.703[deg]0.100[deg]).\13\ For A330/A340 series airplanes, resolution=0.5[deg]C.\14\ For Dassault F900C/F900EX airplanes, Radio altitude resolution = 1.25 ft.\15\ For A330/A340 series airplanes, resolution = 0.352 degrees.\16\ For A318/A319/A320/A321 series airplanes, resolution = 4.32%. For A330/A340 series airplanes, resolution is 3.27% of full range for throttle lever

angle (TLA); for reverse thrust, reverse throttle lever angle (RLA) resolution is nonlinear over the active reverse thrust range, which is 51.54

degrees to 96.14 degrees. The resolved element is 2.8 degrees uniformly over the entire active reverse thrust range, or 2.9% of the full range value

of 96.14 degrees.\17\ For A318/A319/A320/A321 series airplanes, with IAE engines, resolution = 2.58%.\18\ For all aircraft manufactured on or after December 6, 2010, the seconds per sampling interval is 0.125. Each input must be recorded at this rate.

Alternately sampling inputs (interleaving) to meet this sampling interval is prohibited.\19\ For 737 model airplanes manufactured between August 19, 2000 and April 6, 2010: the seconds per sampling interval is 0.5 per control input; the

remarks regarding the sampling rate do not apply; a single control wheel force transducer installed on the left cable control is acceptable provided

the left and right control wheel positions also are recorded. [Doc. No. 28109, 62 FR 38382, July 17, 1997; 62 FR 48135, Sept. 12, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 121-271, 64 FR 46120, Aug. 24, 1999; Amdt. 121-278, 65 FR 51745, Aug. 24, 2000; 65 FR 81733, Dec. 27, 2000; Amdt. 121-292, 67 FR 54323, Aug. 21, 2002; Amdt. 121-300, 68 FR 42936, July 18, 2003; 68 FR 50069, Aug. 20, 2003; 68 FR 53877, Sept. 15, 2003; 70 FR 41134, July 18, 2005; Amdt. 125-54, 73 FR 12566, Mar. 7, 2008; Amdt. 121-338, 73 FR 12566, Mar. 7, 2008; Amdt. 121-342, 73 FR 73179, Dec. 2, 2008; Amdt. 121-349, 75 FR 17046, Apr. 5, 2010; Amdt. 121-347, 75 FR 7356, Feb. 19, 2010; Amdt. 121-364, 78 FR 39971, July 3, 2013]

Sec. Appendix N to Part 121 [Reserved]

Sec. Appendix O to Part 121--Hazardous Materials Training Requirements

For Certificate Holders

This appendix prescribes the requirements for hazardous materials training under part 121, subpart Z, and part 135, subpart K of this chapter. The training requirements for various categories of persons are defined by job function or responsibility. An ``X'' in a box under a category of persons indicates that the specified category must receive the noted training. All training requirements apply to direct supervisors as well as to persons actually performing the job function. Training requirements for certificate holders authorized in their operations specifications to transport hazardous materials (will-carry) are prescribed in Table 1. Those certificate holders with a prohibition in their operations specifications against carrying or handling hazardous materials (will-not-carry) must follow the curriculum prescribed in Table 2. The method of delivering the training will be determined by the certificate holder. The certificate holder is responsible for providing a method (may include email, telecommunication, etc.) to answer all questions prior to testing regardless of the method of instruction. The certificate holder must certify that a test has been completed satisfactorily to verify understanding of the regulations and requirements.

Table 1--Operators That Transport Hazardous Material--Will-Carry Certificate Holders--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Operators and

Operators and ground-handling

ground-handling agents staff

agent's staff responsible for Flight crew Crew membersAspects of transport of hazardous materials by air Shippers (See accepting the handling, Passenger- members and (other than

with which they must be familiar, as a minimum Note 2) Will- hazardous storage, and handling staff load planners flight crew

(See note 1) carry materials (See loading of Will-carry Will-carry members) Will-

Note 3) Will- cargo and carry

carry baggage Will-

carry--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------General philosophy................................ X X X X X XLimitations....................................... X X X X X XGeneral requirements for shippers................. X X ............... ............... ............... ...............Classification.................................... X X ............... ............... ............... ...............List of hazardous materials....................... X X ............... ............... X ...............General packing requirements...................... X X ............... ............... ............... ...............Labeling and marking.............................. X X X X X XHazardous materials transport document and other X X ............... ............... ............... ...............

relevant documentation...........................Acceptance procedures............................. ............... X ............... ............... ............... ...............Recognition of undeclared hazardous materials..... X X X X X XStorage and loading procedures.................... ............... X X ............... X ...............Pilots' notification.............................. ............... X X ............... X ...............Provisions for passengers and crew................ ............... X X X X XEmergency procedures.............................. X X X X X X--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Note 1. Depending on the responsibilities of the person, the aspects of training to be covered may vary from those shown in the table.Note 2. When a person offers a consignment of hazmat, including COMAT, for or on behalf of the certificate holder, then the person must be trained in

the certificate holder's training program and comply with shipper responsibilities and training. If offering goods on another certificate holder's

equipment, the person must be trained in compliance with the training requirements in 49 CFR. All shippers of hazmat must be trained under 49 CFR. The

shipper functions in 49 CFR mirror the training aspects that must be covered for any shipper offering hazmat for transport.Note 3. When an operator, its subsidiary, or an agent of the operator is undertaking the responsibilities of acceptance staff, such as the passenger

handling staff accepting small parcel cargo, the certificate holder, its subsidy, or the agent must be trained in the certificate holder's training

program and comply with the acceptance staff training requirements.

Table 2--Operators That Do Not Transport Hazardous Materials--Will-Not-Carry Certificate Holders--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Operators and

Operators and ground-handling

ground-handling agents staff

agent's staff responsible for Flight crew Crew membersAspects of transport of hazardous materials by air Shippers (See accepting cargo the handling, Passenger- members and (other than

with which they must be familiar, as a minimum Note 2) Will- other than storage, and handling staff load planners flight crew

(See Note 1) not-carry hazardous loading of Will-not-carry Will-not-carry members) Will-

materials (See cargo and not-carry

Note 3) Will- baggage Will-

not-carry not-carry--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------General philosophy................................ X X X X X XLimitations....................................... X X X X X XGeneral requirements for shippers................. X ............... ............... ............... ............... ...............Classification.................................... X ............... ............... ............... ............... ...............List of hazardous materials....................... X ............... ............... ............... ............... ...............General packing requirements...................... X ............... ............... ............... ............... ...............Labeling and marking.............................. X X X X X XHazardous materials transport document and other X X ............... ............... ............... ...............

relevant documentation...........................Acceptance procedures............................. ............... ............... ............... ............... ............... ...............Recognition of undeclared hazardous materials..... X X X X X XStorage and loading procedures.................... ............... ............... ............... ............... ............... ...............Pilots' notification.............................. ............... ............... ............... ............... ............... ...............Provisions for passengers and Crew................ ............... X X X X XEmergency procedures.............................. X X X X X X--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Note 1--Depending on the responsibilities of the person, the aspects of training to be covered may vary from those shown in the table.Note 2--When a person offers a consignment of hazmat, including COMAT, for air transport for or on behalf of the certificate holder, then that person

must be properly trained. All shippers of hazmat must be trained under 49 CFR. The shipper functions in 49 CFR mirror the training aspects that must

be covered for any shipper, including a will-not-carry certificate holder offering dangerous goods for transport, with the exception of recognition

training. Recognition training is a separate FAA requirement in the certificate holder's training program.Note 3--When an operator, its subsidiary, or an agent of the operator is undertaking the responsibilities of acceptance staff, such as the passenger

handling staff accepting small parcel cargo, the certificate holder, its subsidiary, or the agent must be trained in the certificate holder's training

program and comply with the acceptance staff training requirements. [Doc. No. FAA-2003-15085, 70 FR 58825, Oct. 7, 2005, as amended by Amdt. 121-318, 70 FR 75396, Dec. 20, 2005] Sec. Appendix P to Part 121--Requirements for ETOPS and Polar Operations

The FAA approves ETOPS in accordance with the requirements and limitations in this appendix.

Section I. ETOPS Approvals: Airplanes with Two engines.

(a) Propulsion system reliability for ETOPS. (1) Before the FAA grants ETOPS operational approval, the operator must be able to demonstrate the ability to achieve and maintain the level of propulsion system reliability, if any, that is required by Sec. 21.4(b)(2) of this chapter for the ETOPS-approved airplane-engine combination to be used.

(1) Before the FAA grants ETOPS operational approval, the operator must be able to demonstrate the ability to achieve and maintain the level of propulsion system reliability, if any, that is required by Sec. 21.4(b)(2) of this chapter for the ETOPS-approved airplane-engine combination to be used.

(2) Following ETOPS operational approval, the operator must monitor the propulsion system reliability for the airplane-engine combination used in ETOPS, and take action as required by Sec. 121.374(i) for the specified IFSD rates.

(b) 75 Minutes ETOPS--(1) Caribbean/Western Atlantic Area. The FAA grants approvals to conduct

ETOPS with maximum diversion times up to 75 minutes on Western Atlantic/Caribbean area routes as follows:

(i) The FAA reviews the airplane-engine combination to ensure the absence of factors that could prevent safe operations. The airplane-engine combination need not be type-design-approved for ETOPS; however, it must have sufficient favorable experience to demonstrate to the Administrator a level of reliability appropriate for 75-minute ETOPS.

(ii) The certificate holder must comply with the requirements of Sec. 121.633 for time-limited system planning.

(iii) The certificate holder must operate in accordance with the ETOPS authority as contained in its operations specifications.

(iv) The certificate holder must comply with the maintenance program requirements of Sec. 121.374, except that a pre-departure service check before departure of the return flight is not required.

(2) Other Areas. The FAA grants approvals to conduct ETOPS with maximum diversion times up to 75 minutes on other than Western Atlantic/Caribbean area routes as follows:

(i) The FAA reviews the airplane-engine combination to ensure the absence of factors that could prevent safe operations. The airplane-engine combination need not be type-design-approved for ETOPS; however, it must have sufficient favorable experience to demonstrate to the Administrator a level of reliability appropriate for 75-minute ETOPS.

(ii) The certificate holder must comply with the requirements of Sec. 121.633 for time-limited system planning.

(iii) The certificate holder must operate in accordance with the ETOPS authority as contained in its operations specifications.

(iv) The certificate holder must comply with the maintenance program requirements of Sec. 121.374.

(v) The certificate holder must comply with the MEL in its operations specifications for 120-minute ETOPS.

(c) 90-minutes ETOPS (Micronesia). The FAA grants approvals to conduct ETOPS with maximum diversion times up to 90 minutes on Micronesian area routes as follows:

(1) The airplane-engine combination must be type-design approved for ETOPS of at least 120-minutes.

(2) The certificate holder must operate in accordance with the ETOPS authority as contained in its operations specifications.

(3) The certificate holder must comply with the maintenance program requirements of Sec. 121.374, except that a pre-departure service check before departure of the return flight is not required.

(4) The certificate holder must comply with the MEL requirements in its operations specifications for 120-minute ETOPS.

(d) 120-minute ETOPS. The FAA grants approvals to conduct ETOPS with maximum diversion times up to 120 minutes as follows:

(1) The airplane-engine combination must be type-design-approved for ETOPS of at least 120 minutes.

(2) The certificate holder must operate in accordance with the ETOPS authority as contained in its operations specifications.

(3) The certificate holder must comply with the maintenance program requirements of Sec. 121.374.

(4) The certificate holder must comply with the MEL requirements for 120-minute ETOPS.

(e) 138-Minute ETOPS. The FAA grants approval to conduct ETOPS with maximum diversion times up to 138 minutes as follows:

(1) Operators with 120-minute ETOPS approval. The FAA grants 138-minute ETOPS approval as an extension of an existing 120-minute ETOPS approval as follows:

(i) The authority may be exercised only for specific flights for which the 120-minute diversion time must be exceeded.

(ii) For these flight-by-flight exceptions, the airplane-engine combination must be type-design-approved for ETOPS up to at least 120 minutes. The capability of the airplane's time-limited systems may not be less than 138 minutes calculated in accordance with Sec. 121.633.

(iii) The certificate holder must operate in accordance with the ETOPS authority as contained in its operations specifications.

(iv) The certificate holder must comply with the maintenance program requirements of Sec. 121.374.

(v) The certificate holder must comply with minimum equipment list (MEL) requirements in its operations specifications for ``beyond 120 minutes ETOPS''. Operators without a ``beyond 120-minute ETOPS'' MEL may apply to AFS-200 through their certificate holding district office for a modified MEL which satisfies the master MEL policy for system/component relief in ETOPS beyond 120 minutes.

(vi) The certificate holder must conduct training for maintenance, dispatch, and flight crew personnel regarding differences between 138-minute ETOPS authority and its previously-approved 120-minute ETOPS authority.

(2) Operators with existing 180-minute ETOPS approval. The FAA grants approvals to conduct 138-minute ETOPS (without the limitation in paragraph (e)(1)(i) of section I of this appendix) to certificate holders with existing 180-minute ETOPS approval as follows:

(i) The airplane-engine combination must be type-design-approved for ETOPS of at least 180 minutes.

(ii) The certificate holder must operate in accordance with the ETOPS authority as contained in its operations specifications.

(iii) The certificate holder must comply with the maintenance program requirements of Sec. 121.374.

(iv) The certificate holder must comply with the MEL requirements for ``beyond 120 minutes ETOPS.''

(v) The certificate holder must conduct training for maintenance, dispatch and flight crew personnel for differences between 138-minute ETOPS diversion approval and its previously approved 180-minute ETOPS diversion authority.

(f) 180-minute ETOPS. The FAA grants approval to conduct ETOPS with diversion times up to 180 minutes as follows:

(1) For these operations the airplane-engine combination must be type-design-approved for ETOPS of at least 180 minutes.

(2) The certificate holder must operate in accordance with the ETOPS authority as contained in its operations specifications.

(3) The certificate holder must comply with the maintenance program requirements of Sec. 121.374.

(4) The certificate holder must comply with the MEL requirements for ``beyond 120 minutes ETOPS.''

(g) Greater than 180-minute ETOPS. The FAA grants approval to conduct ETOPS greater than 180 minutes. The following are requirements for all operations greater than 180 minutes.

(1) The FAA grants approval only to certificate holders with existing 180-minute ETOPS operating authority for the airplane-engine combination to be operated.

(2) The certificate holder must have previous ETOPS experience satisfactory to the Administrator.

(3) In selecting ETOPS Alternate Airports, the operator must make every effort to plan ETOPS with maximum diversion distances of 180 minutes or less, if possible. If conditions necessitate using an ETOPS Alternate Airport beyond 180 minutes, the route may be flown only if the requirements for the specific operating area in paragraph (h) or (i) of section I of this appendix are met.

(4) The certificate holder must inform the flight crew each time an airplane is proposed for dispatch for greater than 180 minutes and tell them why the route was selected.

(5) In addition to the equipment specified in the certificate holder's MEL for 180-minute ETOPS, the following systems must be operational for dispatch:

(i) The fuel quantity indicating system.

(ii) The APU (including electrical and pneumatic supply and operating to the APU's designed capability).

(iii) The auto throttle system.

(iv) The communication system required by Sec. 121.99(d) or Sec. 121.122(c), as applicable.

(v) One-engine-inoperative auto-land capability, if flight planning is predicated on its use.

(6) The certificate holder must operate in accordance with the ETOPS authority as contained in its operations specifications.

(7) The certificate holder must comply with the maintenance program requirements of Sec. 121.374.

(h) 207-minute ETOPS in the North Pacific Area of Operations. (1) The FAA grants approval to conduct ETOPS with maximum diversion times up to 207 minutes in the North Pacific Area of Operations as an extension to 180-minute ETOPS authority to be used on an exception basis. This exception may be used only on a flight-by-flight basis when an ETOPS Alternate Airport is not available within 180 minutes for reasons such as political or military concerns; volcanic activity; temporary airport conditions; and airport weather below dispatch requirements or other weather related events.

(1) The FAA grants approval to conduct ETOPS with maximum diversion times up to 207 minutes in the North Pacific Area of Operations as an extension to 180-minute ETOPS authority to be used on an exception basis. This exception may be used only on a flight-by-flight basis when an ETOPS Alternate Airport is not available within 180 minutes for reasons such as political or military concerns; volcanic activity; temporary airport conditions; and airport weather below dispatch requirements or other weather related events.

(2) The nearest available ETOPS Alternate Airport within 207 minutes diversion time must be specified in the dispatch or flight release.

(3) In conducting such a flight the certificate holder must consider Air Traffic Service's preferred track.

(4) The airplane-engine combination must be type-design-approved for ETOPS of at least 180 minutes. The approved time for the airplane's most limiting ETOPS significant system and most limiting cargo-fire suppression time for those cargo and baggage compartments required by regulation to have fire-suppression systems must be at least 222 minutes.

(5) The certificate holder must track how many times 207-minute authority is used.

(i) 240-minute ETOPS in the North Polar Area, in the area north of the NOPAC, and in the Pacific Ocean north of the equator. (1) The FAA grants approval to conduct 240-minute ETOPS authority with maximum diversion times in the North Polar Area, in the area north of the NOPAC area, and the Pacific Ocean area north of the equator as an extension to 180-minute ETOPS authority to be used on an exception basis. This exception may be used only on a flight-by-flight basis when an ETOPS Alternate Airport is not available within 180 minutes. In that case, the nearest available ETOPS Alternate Airport within 240 minutes diversion time must be specified in the dispatch or flight release.

(1) The FAA grants approval to conduct 240-minute ETOPS authority with maximum diversion times in the North Polar Area, in the area north of the NOPAC area, and the Pacific Ocean area north of the equator as an extension to 180-minute ETOPS authority to be used on an exception basis. This exception may be used only on a flight-by-flight basis when an ETOPS Alternate Airport is not available within 180 minutes. In that case, the nearest available ETOPS Alternate Airport within 240 minutes diversion time must be specified in the dispatch or flight release.

(2) This exception may be used in the North Polar Area and in the area north of NOPAC only in extreme conditions particular to these areas such as volcanic activity, extreme cold weather at en-route airports, airport weather below dispatch requirements, temporary airport conditions, and other weather related events. The criteria used by the certificate holder to decide that extreme weather precludes using an airport must be established by the certificate holder, accepted by the FAA, and published in the certificate holder's manual for the use of dispatchers and pilots.

(3) This exception may be used in the Pacific Ocean area north of the equator only for reasons such as political or military concern, volcanic activity, airport weather below dispatch requirements, temporary airport conditions and other weather related events.

(4) The airplane-engine combination must be type design approved for ETOPS greater than 180 minutes.

(j) 240-minute ETOPS in areas South of the equator. (1) The FAA grants approval to conduct ETOPS with maximum diversion times of up to 240 minutes in the following areas:

(1) The FAA grants approval to conduct ETOPS with maximum diversion times of up to 240 minutes in the following areas:

(i) Pacific oceanic areas between the U.S. West coast and Australia, New Zealand and Polynesia.

(ii) South Atlantic oceanic areas.

(iii) Indian Ocean areas.

(iv) Oceanic areas between Australia and South America.

(2) The operator must designate the nearest available ETOPS Alternate Airports along the planned route of flight.

(3) The airplane-engine combination must be type-design-approved for ETOPS greater than 180 minutes.

(k) ETOPS beyond 240 minutes. (1) The FAA grants approval to conduct ETOPS with diversion times beyond 240 minutes for operations between specified city pairs on routes in the following areas:

(1) The FAA grants approval to conduct ETOPS with diversion times beyond 240 minutes for operations between specified city pairs on routes in the following areas:

(i) The Pacific oceanic areas between the U.S. west coast and Australia, New Zealand, and Polynesia;

(ii) The South Atlantic oceanic areas;

(iii) The Indian Oceanic areas; and

(iv) The oceanic areas between Australia and South America, and the South Polar Area.

(2) This approval is granted to certificate holders who have been operating under 180-minute or greater ETOPS authority for at least 24 consecutive months, of which at least 12 consecutive months must be under 240-minute ETOPS authority with the airplane-engine combination to be used.

(3) The operator must designate the nearest available ETOPS alternate or alternates along the planned route of flight.

(4) For these operations, the airplane-engine combination must be type-design-approved for ETOPS greater than 180 minutes.

Section II. ETOPS Approval: Passenger-carrying Airplanes With More Than Two Engines.

(a) The FAA grants approval to conduct ETOPS, as follows:

(1) Except as provided in Sec. 121.162, the airplane-engine combination must be type-design-approved for ETOPS.

(2) The operator must designate the nearest available ETOPS Alternate Airports within 240 minutes diversion time (at one-engine-inoperative cruise speed under standard conditions in still air). If an ETOPS alternate is not available within 240 minutes, the operator must designate the nearest available ETOPS Alternate Airports along the planned route of flight.

(3) The MEL limitations for the authorized ETOPS diversion time apply.

(i) The Fuel Quantity Indicating System must be operational.

(ii) The communications systems required by Sec. 121.99(d) or Sec. 121.122(c) must be operational.

(4) The certificate holder must operate in accordance with the ETOPS authority as contained in its operations specifications.

Section III. Approvals for operations whose airplane routes are planned to traverse either the North Polar or South Polar Areas.

(a) Except for intrastate operations within the State of Alaska, no certificate holder may operate an aircraft in the North Polar Area or South Polar Area, unless authorized by the FAA.

(b) In addition to any of the applicable requirements of sections I and II of this appendix, the certificate holder's operations specifications must contain the following:

(1) The designation of airports that may be used for en-route diversions and the requirements the airports must meet at the time of diversion.

(2) Except for supplemental all-cargo operations, a recovery plan for passengers at designated diversion airports.

(3) A fuel-freeze strategy and procedures for monitoring fuel freezing.

(4) A plan to ensure communication capability for these operations.

(5) An MEL for these operations.

(6) A training plan for operations in these areas.

(7) A plan for mitigating crew exposure to radiation during solar flare activity.

(8) A plan for providing at least two cold weather anti-exposure suits in the aircraft, to protect crewmembers during outside activity at a diversion airport with extreme climatic conditions. The FAA may relieve the certificate holder from this requirement if the season of the year makes the equipment unnecessary. [Doc. No. FAA-2002-6717, 72 FR 1883, Jan. 16, 2007]