(a) Applicability. Except as provided in paragraph (m) of this section, this section applies to transport category, turbine-powered airplanes with a type certificate issued after January 1, 1958, that, as a result of original type certification or later increase in capacity have:
(1) A maximum type-certificated passenger capacity of 30 or more, or
(2) A maximum payload capacity of 7,500 pounds or more.
(b) New Production Airplanes. Except in accordance with Sec. 125.201, no person may operate an airplane identified in Table 1 of this section (including all-cargo airplanes) for which the State of Manufacture issued the original certificate of airworthiness or export airworthiness approval after December 27, 2010 unless an Ignition Mitigation Means (IMM) or Flammability Reduction Means (FRM) meeting the requirements of Sec. 26.33 of this chapter is operational.
Table 1------------------------------------------------------------------------
Model--Boeing Model--Airbus------------------------------------------------------------------------747 Series A318, A319, A320, A321 Series737 Series A330, A340 Series777 Series767 Series------------------------------------------------------------------------
(c) Auxiliary Fuel Tanks. After the applicable date stated in paragraph (e) of this section, no person may operate any airplane subject to Sec. 26.33 of this chapter that has an Auxiliary Fuel Tank installed pursuant to a field approval, unless the following requirements are met:
(1) The person complies with 14 CFR 26.35 by the applicable date stated in that section.
(2) The person installs Flammability Impact Mitigation Means (FIMM), if applicable, that is approved by the FAA Oversight Office.
(3) Except in accordance with Sec. 125.201, the FIMM, if applicable, are operational.
(d) Retrofit. Except as provided in paragraph (j) of this section, after the dates specified in paragraph (e) of this section, no person may operate an airplane to which this section applies unless the requirements of paragraphs (d)(1) and (d)(2) of this section are met.
(1) Ignition Mitigation Means (IMM), Flammability Reduction Means (FRM), or FIMM, if required by Sec. Sec. 26.33, 26.35, or 26.37 of this chapter, that are approved by the FAA Oversight Office, are installed within the compliance times specified in paragraph (e) of this section.
(2) Except in accordance with Sec. 125.201 of this part, the IMM, FRM or FIMM, as applicable, are operational.
(e) Compliance Times. The installations required by paragraph (d) of this section must be accomplished no later than the applicable dates specified in paragraph (e)(1), (e)(2) or (e)(3) of this section.
(1) Fifty percent of each person's fleet of airplanes subject to paragraph (d)(1) of this section must be modified no later than December 26, 2014.
(2) One hundred percent of each person's fleet of airplanes subject to paragraph (d)(1) of this section must be modified no later than December 26, 2017.
(3) For those persons that have only one airplane of a model identified in Table 1 of this section, the airplane must be modified no later than December 26, 2017.
(f) Compliance after Installation. Except in accordance with Sec. 125.201, no person may--
(1) Operate an airplane on which IMM or FRM has been installed before the dates specified in paragraph (e) of this section unless the IMM or FRM is operational, or
(2) Deactivate or remove an IMM or FRM once installed unless it is replaced by a means that complies with paragraph (d) of this section.
(g) Inspection Program Revisions. No person may operate an airplane for which airworthiness limitations have been approved by the FAA Oversight Office in accordance with Sec. Sec. 26.33, 26.35, or 26.37 of this chapter after the airplane is modified in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section unless the inspection program for that airplane is revised to include those applicable airworthiness limitations.
(h) After the inspection program is revised as required by paragraph (g) of this section, before returning an airplane to service after any alteration for which airworthiness limitations are required by Sec. Sec. 25.981, 26.33, 26.35, or 26.37 of this chapter, the person must revise the inspection program for the airplane to include those airworthiness limitations.
(i) The inspection program changes identified in paragraphs (g) and (h) of this section must be submitted to the operator's assigned Flight Standards Office responsible for review and approval prior to incorporation.
(j) The requirements of paragraph (d) of this section do not apply to airplanes operated in all-cargo service, but those airplanes are subject to paragraph (f) of this section.
(k) After the date by which any person is required by this section to modify 100 percent of the affected fleet, no person may operate in passenger service any airplane model specified in Table 2 of this section unless the airplane has been modified to comply with Sec. 26.33(c) of this chapter.
Table 2------------------------------------------------------------------------
Model--Boeing Model--Airbus------------------------------------------------------------------------747 Series............................ A318, A319, A320, A321 Series.737 Series............................ A300, A310 Series.777 Series............................ A330, A340 Series.767 Series............................757 Series............................------------------------------------------------------------------------
(l) No person may operate any airplane on which an auxiliary fuel tank is installed after December 26, 2017 unless the FAA has certified the tank as compliant with Sec. 25.981 of this chapter, in effect on December 26, 2008.
(m) Exclusions. The requirements of this section do not apply to the following airplane models:
(1) Convair CV-240, 340, 440, including turbine powered conversions.
(2) Lockheed L-188 Electra.
(3) Vickers VC-10.
(4) Douglas DC-3, including turbine powered conversions.
(5) Bombardier CL-44.
(6) Mitsubishi YS-11.
(7) BAC 1-11.
(8) Concorde.
(9) deHavilland D.H. 106 Comet 4C.
(10) VFW--Vereinigte Flugtechnische VFW-614.
(11) Illyushin Aviation IL 96T.
(12) Bristol Aircraft Britannia 305.
(13) Handley Page Herald Type 300.
(14) Avions Marcel Dassault--Breguet Aviation Mercure 100C.
(15) Airbus Caravelle.
(16) Fokker F-27/Fairchild Hiller FH-227.
(17) Lockheed L-300. [Doc. No. FAA-2005-22997, 73 FR 42502, July 21, 2008, as amended by Amdt. 125-57, 74 FR 31619, July 2, 2009]
Sec. Appendix A to Part 125--Additional Emergency Equipment
(a) Means for emergency evacuation. Each passenger-carrying landplane emergency exit (other than over-the-wing) that is more that 6 feet from the ground with the airplane on the ground and the landing gear extended must have an approved means to assist the occupants in descending to the ground. The assisting means for a floor level emergency exit must meet the requirements of Sec. 25.809(f)(1) of this chapter in effect on April 30, 1972, except that, for any airplane for which the application for the type certificate was filed after that date, it must meet the requirements under which the airplane was type certificated. An assisting means that deploys automatically must be armed during taxiing, takeoffs, and landings. However, if the Administrator finds that the design of the exit makes compliance impractical, the Administrator may grant a deviation from the requirement of automatic deployment if the assisting means automatically erects upon deployment and, with respect to required emergency exits, if an emergency evacuation demonstration is conducted in accordance with Sec. 125.189. This paragraph does not apply to the rear window emergency exit of DC-3 airplanes operated with less than 36 occupants, including crewmembers, and less than five exits authorized for passenger use.
(b) Interior emergency exit marking. The following must be complied with for each passenger-carrying airplane:
(1) Each passenger emergency exit, its means of access, and means of opening must be conspicuously marked. The identity and location of each passenger emergency exit must be recognizable from a distance equal to the width of the cabin. The location of each passenger emergency exit must be indicated by a sign visible to occupants approaching along the main passenger aisle. There must be a locating sign--
(i) Above the aisle near each over-the-wing passenger emergency exit, or at another ceiling location if it is more practical because of low headroom;
(ii) Next to each floor level passenger emergency exit, except that one sign may serve two such exits if they both can be seen readily from that sign; and
(iii) On each bulkhead or divider that prevents fore and aft vision along the passenger cabin, to indicate emergency exits beyond and obscured by it, except that if this is not possible the sign may be placed at another appropriate location.
(2) Each passenger emergency exit marking and each locating sign must meet the following:
(i) For an airplane for which the application for the type certificate was filed prior to May 1, 1972, each passenger emergency exit marking and each locating sign must be manufactured to meet the requirements of Sec. 25.812(b) of this chapter in effect on April 30, 1972. On these airplanes, no sign may continue to be used if its luminescence (brightness) decreases to below 100 microlamberts. The colors may be reversed if it increases the emergency illumination of the passenger compartment. However, the Administrator may authorize deviation from the 2-inch background requirements if the Administrator finds that special circumstances exist that make compliance impractical and that the proposed deviation provides an equivalent level of safety.
(ii) For an airplane for which the application for the type certificate was filed on or after May 1, 1972, each passenger emergency exit marking and each locating sign must be manufactured to meet the interior emergency exit marking requirements under which the airplane was type certificated. On these airplanes, no sign may continue to be used if its luminescence (brightness) decreases to below 250 microlamberts.
(c) Lighting for interior emergency exit markings. Each passenger-carrying airplane must have an emergency lighting system, independent of the main lighting system. However, sources of general cabin illumination may be common to both the emergency and the main lighting systems if the power supply to the emergency lighting system is independent of the power supply to the main lighting system. The emergency lighting system must--
(1) Illuminate each passenger exit marking and locating sign; and
(2) Provide enough general lighting in the passenger cabin so that the average illumination, when measured at 40-inch intervals at seat armrest height, on the centerline of the main passenger aisle, is at least 0.05 foot-candles.
(d) Emergency light operation. Except for lights forming part of emergency lighting subsystems provided in compliance with Sec. 25.812(g) of this chapter (as prescribed in paragraph (h) of this section) that serve no more than one assist means, are independent of the airplane's main emergency lighting systems, and are automatically activated when the assist means is deployed, each light required by paragraphs (c) and (h) must comply with the following:
(1) Each light must be operable manually and must operate automatically from the independent lighting system--
(i) In a crash landing; or
(ii) Whenever the airplane's normal electric power to the light is interrupted.
(2) Each light must--
(i) Be operable manually from the flightcrew station and from a point in the passenger compartment that is readily accessible to a normal flight attendant seat;
(ii) Have a means to prevent inadvertent operation of the manual controls; and
(iii) When armed or turned on at either station, remain lighted or become lighted upon interruption of the airplane's normal electric power.
Each light must be armed or turned on during taxiing, takeoff, and landing. In showing compliance with this paragraph, a transverse vertical separation of the fuselage need not be considered.
(3) Each light must provide the required level of illumination for at least 10 minutes at the critical ambient conditions after emergency landing.
(e) Emergency exit operating handles. (1) For a passenger-carrying airplane for which the application for the type certificate was filed prior to May 1, 1972, the location of each passenger emergency exit operating handle and instructions for opening the exit must be shown by a marking on or near the exit that is readable from a distance of 30 inches. In addition, for each Type I and Type II emergency exit with a locking mechanism released by rotary motion of the handle, the instructions for opening must be shown by--
(1) For a passenger-carrying airplane for which the application for the type certificate was filed prior to May 1, 1972, the location of each passenger emergency exit operating handle and instructions for opening the exit must be shown by a marking on or near the exit that is readable from a distance of 30 inches. In addition, for each Type I and Type II emergency exit with a locking mechanism released by rotary motion of the handle, the instructions for opening must be shown by--
(i) A red arrow with a shaft at least \3/4\ inch wide and a head twice the width of the shaft, extending along at least 70 degrees of arc at a radius approximately equal to \3/4\ of the handle length; and
(ii) The word ``open'' in red letters 1 inch high placed horizontally near the head of the arrow.
(2) For a passenger-carrying airplane for which the application for the type certificate was filed on or after May 1, 1972, the location of each passenger emergency exit operating handle and instructions for opening the exit must be shown in accordance with the requirements under which the airplane was type certificated. On these airplanes, no operating handle or operating handle cover may continue to be used if its luminescence (brightness) decreases to below 100 microlamberts.
(f) Emergency exit access. Access to emergency exits must be provided as follows for each passenger-carrying airplane:
(1) Each passageway between individual passenger areas, or leading to a Type I or Type II emergency exit, must be unobstructed and at least 20 inches wide.
(2) There must be enough space next to each Type I or Type II emergency exit to allow a crewmember to assist in the evacuation of passengers without reducing the unobstructed width of the passageway below that required in paragraph (f)(1) of this section. However, the Administrator may authorize deviation from this requirement for an airplane certificated under the provisions of part 4b of the Civil Air Regulations in effect before December 20, 1951, if the Administrator finds that special circumstances exist that provide an equivalent level of safety.
(3) There must be access from the main aisle to each Type III and Type IV exit. The access from the aisle to these exits must not be obstructed by seats, berths, or other protrusions in a manner that would reduce the effectiveness of the exit. In addition--
(i) For an airplane for which the application for the type certificate was filed prior to May 1, 1972, the access must meet the requirements of Sec. 25.813(c) of this chapter in effect on April 30, 1972; and
(ii) For an airplane for which the application for the type certificate was filed on or after May 1, 1972, the access must meet the emergency exit access requirements under which the airplane was certificated.
(4) If it is necessary to pass through a passageway between passenger compartments to reach any required emergency exit from any seat in the passenger cabin, the passageway must not be obstructed. However, curtains may be used if they allow free entry through the passageway.
(5) No door may be installed in any partition between passenger compartments.
(6) If it is necessary to pass through a doorway separating the passenger cabin from other areas to reach any required emergency exit from any passenger seat, the door must have a means to latch it in open position, and the door must be latched open during each takeoff and landing. The latching means must be able to withstand the loads imposed upon it when the door is subjected to the ultimate interia forces, relative to the surrounding structure, listed in Sec. 25.561(b) of this chapter.
(g) Exterior exit markings. Each passenger emergency exit and the means of opening that exit from the outside must be marked on the outside of the airplane. There must be a 2-inch colored band outlining each passenger emergency exit on the side of the fuselage. Each outside marking, including the band, must be readily distinguishable from the surrounding fuselage area by contrast in color. The markings must comply with the following:
(1) If the reflectance of the darker color is 15 percent or less, the reflectance of the lighter color must be at least 45 percent. ``Reflectance'' is the ratio of the luminous flux reflected by a body to the luminous flux it receives.
(2) If the reflectance of the darker color is greater than 15 percent, at least a 30 percent difference between its reflectance and the reflectance of the lighter color must be provided.
(3) Exits that are not in the side of the fuselage must have the external means of opening and applicable instructions marked conspicuously in red or, if red is inconspicuous against the background color, in bright chrome yellow and, when the opening means for such an exit is located on only one side of the fuselage, a conspicuous marking to that effect must be provided on the other side.
(h) Exterior emergency lighting and escape route. (1) Each passenger-carrying airplane must be equipped with exterior lighting that meets the following requirements:
(1) Each passenger-carrying airplane must be equipped with exterior lighting that meets the following requirements:
(i) For an airplane for which the application for the type certificate was filed prior to May 1, 1972, the requirements of Sec. 25.812(f) and (g) of this chapter in effect on April 30, 1972.
(ii) For an airplane for which the application for the type certificate was filed on or after May 1, 1972, the exterior emergency lighting requirements under which the airplane was type certificated.
(2) Each passenger-carrying airplane must be equipped with a slip-resistant escape route that meets the following requirements:
(i) For an airplane for which the application for the type certificate was filed prior to May 1, 1972, the requirements of Sec. 25.803(e) of this chapter in effect on April 30, 1972.
(ii) For an airplane for which the application for the type certificate was filed on or after May 1, 1972, the slip-resistant escape route requirements under which the airplane was type certificated.
(i) Floor level exits. Each floor level door or exit in the side of the fuselage (other than those leading into a cargo or baggage compartment that is not accessible from the passenger cabin) that is 44 or more inches high and 20 or more inches wide, but not wider than 46 inches, each passenger ventral exit (except the ventral exits on M-404 and CV-240 airplanes) and each tail cone exit must meet the requirements of this section for floor level emergency exits. However, the Administrator may grant a deviation from this paragraph if the Administrator finds that circumstances make full compliance impractical and that an acceptable level of safety has been achieved.
(j) Additional emergency exits. Approved emergency exits in the passenger compartments that are in excess of the minimum number of required emergency exits must meet all of the applicable provisions of this section except paragraph (f), (1), (2), and (3) and must be readily accessible.
(k) On each large passenger-carrying turbojet-powered airplane, each ventral exit and tailcone exit must be--
(1) Designed and constructed so that it cannot be opened during flight; and
(2) Marked with a placard readable from a distance of 30 inches and installed at a conspicuous location near the means of opening the exit, stating that the exit has been designed and constructed so that it cannot be opened during flight.
Sec. Appendix B to Part 125--Criteria for Demonstration of Emergency
Evacuation Procedures Under Sec. 125.189
(a) Aborted takeoff demonstration. (1) The demonstration must be conducted either during the dark of the night or during daylight with the dark of the night simulated. If the demonstration is conducted indoors during daylight hours, it must be conducted with each window covered and each door closed to minimize the daylight effect. Illumination on the floor or ground may be used, but it must be kept low and shielded against shining into the airplane's windows or doors.
(1) The demonstration must be conducted either during the dark of the night or during daylight with the dark of the night simulated. If the demonstration is conducted indoors during daylight hours, it must be conducted with each window covered and each door closed to minimize the daylight effect. Illumination on the floor or ground may be used, but it must be kept low and shielded against shining into the airplane's windows or doors.
(2) The airplane must be in a normal ground attitude with landing gear extended.
(3) Stands or ramps may be used for descent from the wing to the ground. Safety equipment such as mats or inverted life rafts may be placed on the ground to protect participants. No other equipment that is not part of the airplane's emergency evacuation equipment may be used to aid the participants in reaching the ground.
(4) The airplane's normal electric power sources must be deenergized.
(5) All emergency equipment for the type of passenger-carrying operation involved must be installed in accordance with the certificate holder's manual.
(6) Each external door and exit and each internal door or curtain must be in position to simulate a normal takeoff.
(7) A representative passenger load of persons in normal health must be used. At least 30 percent must be females. At least 5 percent must be over 60 years of age with a proportionate number of females. At least 5 percent, but not more than 10 percent, must be children under 12 years of age, prorated through that age group. Three life-size dolls, not included as part of the total passenger load, must be carried by passengers to simulate live infants 2 years old or younger. Crewmembers, mechanics, and training personnel who maintain or operate the airplane in the normal course of their duties may not be used as passengers.
(8) No passenger may be assigned a specific seat except as the Administrator may require. Except as required by item (12) of this paragraph, no employee of the certificate holder may be seated next to an emergency exit.
(9) Seat belts and shoulder harnesses (as required) must be fastened.
(10) Before the start of the demonstration, approximately one-half of the total average amount of carry-on baggage, blankets, pillows, and other similar articles must be distributed at several locations in the aisles and emergency exit access ways to create minor obstructions.
(11) The seating density and arrangement of the airplane must be representative of the highest capacity passenger version of that airplane the certificate holder operates or proposes to operate.
(12) Each crewmember must be a member of a regularly scheduled line crew, must be seated in that crewmember's normally assigned seat for takeoff, and must remain in that seat until the signal for commencement of the demonstration is received.
(13) No crewmember or passenger may be given prior knowledge of the emergency exits available for the demonstration.
(14) The certificate holder may not practice, rehearse, or describe the demonstration for the participants nor may any participant have taken part in this type of demonstration within the preceding 6 months.
(15) The pretakeoff passenger briefing required by Sec. 125.327 may be given in accordance with the certificate holder's manual. The passengers may also be warned to follow directions of crewmembers, but may not be instructed on the procedures to be followed in the demonstration.
(16) If safety equipment as allowed by item (3) of this section is provided, either all passenger and cockpit windows must be blacked out or all of the emergency exits must have safety equipment to prevent disclosure of the available emergency exits.
(17) Not more than 50 percent of the emergency exits in the sides of the fuselage of an airplane that meet all of the requirements applicable to the required emergency exits for that airplane may be used for the demonstration. Exits that are not to be used in the demonstration must have the exit handle deactivated or must be indicated by red lights, red tape or other acceptable means, placed outside the exits to indicate fire or other reason that they are unusable. The exits to be used must be representative of all of the emergency exits on the airplane and must be designated by the certificate holder, subject to approval by the Administrator. At least one floor level exit must be used.
(18) All evacuees, except those using an over-the-wing exit, must leave the airplane by a means provided as part of the airplane's equipment.
(19) The certificate holder's approved procedures and all of the emergency equipment that is normally available, including slides, ropes, lights, and megaphones, must be fully utilized during the demonstration.
(20) The evacuation time period is completed when the last occupant has evacuated the airplane and is on the ground. Evacuees using stands or ramps allowed by item (3) above are considered to be on the ground when they are on the stand or ramp: Provided, That the acceptance rate of the stand or ramp is no greater than the acceptance rate of the means available on the airplane for descent from the wing during an actual crash situation.
(b) Ditching demonstration. The demonstration must assume that daylight hours exist outside the airplane and that all required crewmembers are available for the demonstration.
(1) If the certificate holder's manual requires the use of passengers to assist in the launching of liferafts, the needed passengers must be aboard the airplane and participate in the demonstration according to the manual.
(2) A stand must be placed at each emergency exit and wing with the top of the platform at a height simulating the water level of the airplane following a ditching.
(3) After the ditching signal has been received, each evacuee must don a life vest according to the certificate holder's manual.
(4) Each liferaft must be launched and inflated according to the certificate holder's manual and all other required emergency equipment must be placed in rafts.
(5) Each evacuee must enter a liferaft and the crewmembers assigned to each liferaft must indicate the location of emergency equipment aboard the raft and describe its use.
(6) Either the airplane, a mockup of the airplane, or a floating device simulating a passenger compartment must be used.
(i) If a mockup of the airplane is used, it must be a life-size mockup of the interior and representative of the airplane currently used by or proposed to be used by the certificate holder and must contain adequate seats for use of the evacuees. Operation of the emergency exits and the doors must closely simulate that on the airplane. Sufficient wing area must be installed outside the over-the-wing exits to demonstrate the evacuation.
(ii) If a floating device simulating a passenger compartment is used, it must be representative, to the extent possible, of the passenger compartment of the airplane used in operations. Operation of the emergency exits and the doors must closely simulate operation on that airplane. Sufficient wing area must be installed outside the over-the-wing exits to demonstrate the evacuation. The device must be equipped with the same survival equipment as is installed on the airplane, to accommodate all persons participating in the demonstration.
Sec. Appendix C to Part 125--Ice Protection
If certification with ice protection provisions is desired, compliance with the following must be shown:
(a) The recommended procedures for the use of the ice protection equipment must be set forth in the Airplane Flight Manual.
(b) An analysis must be performed to establish, on the basis of the airplane's operational needs, the adequacy of the ice protection system for the various components of the airplane. In addition, tests of the ice protection system must be conducted to demonstrate that the airplane is capable of operating safely in continuous maximum and intermittent maximum icing conditions as described in appendix C of part 25 of this chapter.
(c) Compliance with all or portions of this section may be accomplished by reference, where applicable because of similarity of the designs, to analyses and tests performed by the applicant for a type certificated model.
Sec. Appendix D to Part 125--Airplane Flight Recorder Specification ----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Accuracy sensor
Parameters Range input to DFDR Sampling interval Resolution \4\
readout (per second) read out----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Time (GMT or Frame Counter) 24 Hrs............ 0.125% Per seconds).
frame). Hour.Altitude........................ -1,000 ft to max 100 to 7
aircraft. 00 ft (See Table
1, TSO-C51a).Airspeed........................ 50 KIAS to Vso, 5%, 3
%.Heading......................... 360[deg].......... 2[deg].Normal Acceleration (Vertical).. -3g to +6g........ 1% of max
range excluding
datum error of
5%.Pitch Attitude.................. 75[deg]. eq>2[deg].Roll Attitude................... 180[deg]. eq>2[deg].Radio Transmitter Keying........ On-Off (Discrete). .................. 1................. ..................Thrust/Power on Each Engine..... Full range forward 2%.Trailing Edge Flap or Cockpit Full range or each 3[deg] or as
pilot's Indicator.Leading Edge Flap or Cockpit Full range or each 3[deg] or as
pilot's indicator.Thrust Reverser Position........ Stowed, in .................. 1 (per 4 seconds ..................
transit, and per engine).
reverse
(Discrete).Ground Spoiler Position/Speed Full range or each 2% unless
higher accuracy
uniquely required.Marker Beacon Passage........... Discrete.......... .................. 1................. ..................Autopilot Engagement............ Discrete.......... .................. 1................. ..................Longitudinal Acceleration....... 1g. eq>1.5% max range
excluding datum
error of 5
%.Pilot Input and/or Surface Full range........ 2[deg] unless
(Pitch, Roll, Yaw) \3\. higher accuracy
uniquely required.Lateral Acceleration............ 1g. eq>1.5% max range
excluding datum
error of 5
%.Pitch Trim Position............. Full range........ 3% unless
higher accuracy
uniquely required.Glideslope Deviation............ 400 Microamps. eq>3%.Localizer Deviation............. 400 Microamps. eq>3%.AFCS Mode and Engagement Status. Discrete.......... .................. 1................. ..................Radio Altitude.................. -20 ft to 2,500 ft 2 Ft or 3
% Whichever is
Greater Below 500
Ft and 5
% Above 500 Ft.Master Warning.................. Discrete.......... .................. 1................. ..................Main Gear Squat Switch Status... Discrete.......... .................. 1................. ..................Angle of Attack (if recorded As installed...... As installed...... 2................. 0.3% \2\.
directly).Outside Air Temperature or Total -50 [deg]C to +90 2 [deg]C.Hydraulics, Each System Low Discrete.......... .................. 0.5............... or 0.5% \2\.
Pressure.Groundspeed..................... As Installed...... Most Accurate 1................. 0.2% \2\.
Systems Installed
(IMS Equipped
Aircraft Only).----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
If additional recording capacity is available, recording of the following parameters is recommended. The
parameters are listed in order of significance:----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Drift Angle..................... When available. As As installed...... 4................. ..................
installed.Wind Speed and Direction........ When available. As As installed...... 4................. ..................
installed.Latitude and Longitude.......... When available. As As installed...... 4................. ..................
installed.Brake pressure/Brake pedal As installed...... As installed...... 1................. ..................
position.Additional engine parameters:
EPR......................... As installed...... As installed...... 1 (per engine).... ..................
N \1\....................... As installed...... As installed...... 1 (per engine).... ..................
N \2\....................... As installed...... As installed...... 1 (per engine).... ..................
EGT......................... As installed...... As installed...... 1 (per engine).... ..................Throttle Lever Position......... As installed...... As installed...... 1 (per engine).... ..................
Fuel Flow....................... As installed...... As installed...... 1 (per engine).... ..................TCAS:
TA.......................... As installed...... As installed...... 1................. ..................
RA.......................... As installed...... As installed...... 1................. ..................
Sensitivity level (as As installed...... As installed...... 2................. ..................
selected by crew).GPWS (ground proximity warning Discrete.......... .................. 1................. ..................
system).Landing gear or gear selector Discrete.......... .................. 0.25 (1 per 4 ..................
position. seconds).DME 1 and 2 Distance............ 0-200 NM;......... As installed...... 0.25.............. 1 mi.Nav 1 and 2 Frequency Selection. Full range........ As installed...... 0.25.............. ..................----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------\1\ When altitude rate is recorded. Altitude rate must have sufficient resolution and sampling to permit the
derivation of altitude to 5 feet.\2\ Percent of full range.\3\ For airplanes that can demonstrate the capability of deriving either the control input on control movement
(one from the other) for all modes of operation and flight regimes, the ``or'' applies. For airplanes with non-
mechanical control systems (fly-by-wire) the ``and'' applies. In airplanes with split surfaces, suitable
combination of inputs is acceptable in lieu of recording each surface separately.\4\ This column applies to aircraft manufactured after October 11, 1991. [Doc. No. 25530, 53 FR 26150, July 11, 1988; 53 FR 30906, Aug. 16, 1988]
Sec. Appendix E to Part 125--Airplane Flight Recorder Specifications
The recorded values must meet the designated range, resolution and accuracy requirements during static and dynamic conditions. Dynamic condition means
the parameter is experiencing change at the maximum rate attainable, including the maximum rate of reversal. All data recorded must be correlated in
time to within one second.--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Accuracy (sensor Seconds per sampling
Parameters Range input) interval Resolution Remarks--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------1. Time or Relative Times 24 Hrs, 0 to 4095..... 0.125% Per Hour. when available.
Count increments
each 4 seconds of
system operation.2. Pressure Altitude............... -1000 ft to max 100 to 700 air data computer
ft (see table, TSO when practicable.
C124a or TSO C51a).3. Indicated airspeed or Calibrated 50 KIAS or minimum 5% and 3%. air data computer
when practicable.4, Heading (Primary flight crew 0-360[deg] and 2[deg]. heading can be
``mag''. selected as the
primary heading
reference, a
discrete indicating
selection must be
recorded.5. Normal Acceleration (Vertical) -3g to +6g............ 1% of max range
excluding datum error
of 5%.6. Pitch Attitude.................. 75[deg]. eq>2[deg]. airplanes operated 0.25 is recommended.
under Sec.
125.226(f).7. Roll Attitude \2\............... 180[deg]. eq>2[deg]. airplanes operated 0.5 is recommended.
under Sec.
121.344(f).8. Manual Radio Transmitter Keying On-Off (Discrete) ...................... 1.................... ..................... Preferably each crew
or CVR/DFDR synchronization None.................. member but onereference.......................... discrete acceptable
for all transmission
provided the CVR/FDR
system complies with
TSO C124a CVR
synchronization
requirements
(paragraph 4.2.1 ED-
55).
9. Thrust/Power on each engine-- Full Range Forward.... 2%. (e.g., EPR, N1 or
Torque, NP) as
appropriate to the
particular engine
being recorded to
determine power in
forward and reverse
thrust, including
potential overspeed
condition.10. Autopilot Engagement........... Discrete ``on'' or ...................... 1. .....................
``off''.11. Longitudinal Acceleration...... 1g. eq>1.5% max. range
excluding datum error
of 5%.12a. Pitch control(s) position Full range............ 2[deg] unless airplanes operated have a flight
higher accuracy under Sec. control breakaway
uniquely required. 125.226(f). capability that
allows either pilot
to operate the
controls
independently,
record both control
inputs. The control
inputs may be
sampled alternately
once per second to
produce the sampling
interval of 0.5 or
0.25, as applicable.12b. Pitch control(s) position (fly- Full range............ 2[deg] unless airplanes operated
higher accuracy under Sec.
uniquely required. 125.226(f).13a. Lateral control position(s) Full range............ 2[deg] unless airplanes operated have a flight
higher accuracy under Sec. control break away
uniquely required. 125.226(f). capability that
allows either pilot
to operate the
controls
independently,
record both control
inputs. The control
inputs may be
sampled alternately
once per second to
produce the sampling
interval of 0.5 or
0.25, as applicable.13b. Lateral control position(s) Full range............ 2[deg] unless airplanes operated
higher accuracy under Sec.
uniquely required. 125.226(f).14a.Yaw control position(s) (nonfly- Full range............ 2[deg] unless have a flight
higher accuracy control breakaway
uniquely required. capability that
allows either pilot
to operate the
controls
independently,
record both control
inputs. The control
inputs may be
sampled alternately
once per second to
produce the sampling
interval of 0.5.14b. Yaw control position(s) (fly- Full range............ 2[deg] unless
higher accuracy
uniquely required.15. Pitch control surface(s) Full range............ 2[deg] unless airplanes operated with multiple or
higher accuracy under Sec. split surfaces, a
uniquely required. 125.226(f). suitable combination
of inputs is
acceptable in lieu
of recording each
surface separately.
The control surfaces
may be sampled
alternately to
produce the sampling
interval of 0.5 or
0.25, as applicable.
16. Lateral control surface(s) Full Range............ 2[deg] unless airplanes operated combination of
higher accuracy under Sec. surface position
uniquely required. 125.226(f). sensors is
acceptable in lieu
of recording each
surface separately.
The control surfaces
may be sampled
alternately to
produce the sampling
interval of 0.5 or
0.25, as applicable.17. Yaw control surface(s) position Full range............ 2[deg] unless with multiple or
higher accuracy split surfaces, a
uniquely required. suitable combination
of surface position
sensors is
acceptable in lieu
of recording each
surface separately.
The control surfaces
may be sampled
alternately to
produce the sampling
interval of 0.5.18. Lateral Acceleration........... 1g. eq>1.5% max. range
excluding datum error
of 5%.19. Pitch Trim Surface Position.... Full Range............ 3[deg] Unless
Higher Accuracy
Uniquely Required.20. Trailing Edge Flap or Cockpit Full Range or Each 3[deg] or as cockpit control may
Pilot's indicator. each be sampled at 4
second intervals, to
give a data point
every 2 seconds.21. Leading Edge Flap or Cockpit Full Range or Each 3[deg] or as or flap position and
Pilot's indicator and cockpit control may
sufficient to each be sampled at 4
determine each second intervals, so
discrete position. as to give a data
point every 2
seconds.22. Each Thrust Reverser Position Stowed, In Transit, ...................... 1 (per engine)....... ..................... Turbo-jet--2
(or equivalent for propeller and Reverse discretes enable the
airplane). (Discrete). 3 states to be
determined.
Turbo-prop--1
discrete.23. Ground Spoiler Position or Full Range or Each 2[deg] Unless airplanes operated
higher accuracy under Sec.
uniquely required. 125.226(f).24. Outside Air Temperature or -50 [deg]C to +90 2 [deg]C.25. Autopilot/Autothrottle/AFCS A suitable combination ...................... 1.................... ..................... Discretes should show
Mode and Engagement Status. of discretes. which systems are
engaged and which
primary modes are
controlling the
flight path and
speed of the
aircraft.26. Radio Altitude \14\............ -20 ft to 2,500 ft.... 2 ft or 3% radio altimeter
Whichever is Greater should be recorded,
Below 500 ft and but arranged so that
5% above 500 ft. recorded each
second.
27. Localizer Deviation, MLS 400 Microamps or minus3%. 3 operations. each
available sensor recommended........... system should be
range as installed recorded but
62[deg]. least one is
recorded each
second. It is not
necessary to record
ILS and MLS at the
same time, only the
approach aid in use
need be recorded.28. Glideslope Deviation, MLS 400 Microamps or minus3%. 3 operations. each
Deviation. available sensor recommended........... system should be
range as installed. recorded but
0.9 to arranged so that at
+ 30[deg]............. least one is
recorded each
second. It is not
necessary to record
ILS and MLS at the
same time, only the
approach aid in use
need be recorded.29. Marker Beacon Passage.......... Discrete ``on'' or ...................... 1.................... ..................... A single discrete is
``off''. acceptable for all
markers.30. Master Warning................. Discrete.............. ...................... 1.................... ..................... Record the master
warning and record
each `red' warning
that cannot be
determined from
other parameters or
from the cockpit
voice recorder.31. Air/ground sensor (primary Discrete ``air'' or ...................... 1 (0.25 recommended). .....................
airplane system reference nose or ``ground''.
main gear).32. Angle of Attack (If measured As installed.......... As Installed.......... 2 or 0.5 for 0.3% of full range... If left and right
directly). airplanes operated sensors are
under Sec. available, each may
125.226(f). be recorded at 4 or
1 second intervals,
as appropriate, so
as to give a data
point at 2 seconds
or 0.5 second, as
required.33. Hydraulic Pressure Low, Each Discrete or available 5%.
or ``normal''.34. Groundspeed.................... As Installed.......... Most Accurate Systems 1.................... 0.2% of full range. .....................
Installed.35. GPWS (ground proximity warning Discrete ``warning'' ...................... 1.................... ..................... A suitable
system). or ``off''. combination of
discretes unless
recorder capacity is
limited in which
case a single
discrete for all
modes is acceptable.36. Landing Gear Position or Discrete.............. ...................... 4.................... ..................... A suitable
Landing gear cockpit control combination of
selection. discretes should be
recorded.37. Drift Angle.\15\............... As installed.......... As installed.......... 4.................... 0.1%................. .....................38. Wind Speed and Direction....... As installed.......... As installed.......... 4.................... 1 knot, and 1.0[deg]. .....................39. Latitude and Longitude......... As installed.......... As installed.......... 4.................... 0.002[deg], or as Provided by the
installed. Primary Navigation
System Reference.
Where capacity
permits Latitude/
longtitude
resolution should be
0.0002[deg].40. Stick shaker and pusher Discrete(s) ``on'' or ...................... 1.................... ..................... A suitable
activation. ``off''. combination of
discretes to
determine
activation.41. WIndshear Detection............ Discrete ``warning'' ...................... 1 .....................
or ``off''.
42. Throttle/power lever Full Range............ 2%. non-mechanically
linked cockpit
engine controls.43. Additional Engine Parameters... As installed.......... As installed.......... Each engine each 2% of full range..... Where capacity
second. permits, the
preferred priority
is indicated
vibration level, N2,
EGT, Fuel Flow, Fuel
Cut-off lever
position and N3,
unless engine
manufacturer
recommends
otherwise.44. Traffic Alert and Collision Discretes............. As installed.......... 1.................... ..................... A suitable
Avoidance System (TCAS). combination of
discretes should be
recorded to
determine the status
of-Combined Control,
Vertical Control, Up
Advisory, and Down
Advisory. (ref.
ARINC Characteristic
735 Attachment 6E,
TCAS VERTICAL RA
DATA OUTPUT WORD.)45. DME 1 and 2 Distance........... 0-200 NM.............. As installed.......... 4.................... 1 NM................. 1 mile.46. Nav 1 and 2 Selected Frequency. Full range............ As installed.......... 4.................... ..................... Sufficient to
determine selected
frequency47. Selected barometric setting.... Full range............ 5%.48. Selected Altitude.............. Full range............ 5%.49. Selected speed................. Full range............ 5%.50. Selected Mach.................. Full range............ 5%.51. Selected vertical speed........ Full range............ 5%.52. Selected heading............... Full range............ 5%.53. Selected flight path........... Full range............ 5%.54. Selected decision height....... Full range............ 5%.55. EFIS display format............ Discrete(s)........... ...................... 4.................... ..................... Discretes should show
the display system
status (e.g., off,
normal, fail,
composite, sector,
plan, nav aids,
weather radar,
range, copy).56. Multi-function/Engine Alerts Discrete(s)........... ...................... 4.................... ..................... Discretes should show
Display format. the display system
status (e.g., off,
normal, fail, and
the identity of
display pages for
emergency
procedures, need not
be recorded).57. Thrust command.\17\............ Full Range............ 2%.58. Thrust target.................. Full range............ 2%.59. Fuel quantity in CG trim tank.. Full range............ 5%.60. Primary Navigation System Discrete GPS, INS, VOR/ ...................... 4.................... ..................... A suitable
Reference. DME, MLS, Loran C, combination of
Omega, Localizer discrete to
Glideslope. determine the
Primary Navigation
System reference.61. Ice Detection.................. Discrete ``ice'' or ...................... 4.................... .....................
``no ice''.
62. Engine warning each engine Discrete.............. ...................... 1.................... .....................
vibration.63. Engine warning each engine over Discrete.............. ...................... 1.................... .....................
temp.64. Engine warning each engine oil Discrete.............. ...................... 1.................... .....................
pressure low.65. Engine warning each engine over Discrete.............. ...................... 1.................... .....................
speed.66. Yaw Trim Surface Position...... Full Range............ 3% Unless Higher
Accuracy Uniquely
Required.67. Roll Trim Surface Position..... Full Range............ 3% Unless Higher
Accuracy Uniquely
Required.68. Brake Pressure (left and right) As installed.......... 5%. effort applied by
pilots or by
autobrakes.69. Brake Pedal Application (left Discrete or Analog 5% (Analog). applied by pilots.
``off''.70. Yaw or sideslip angle.......... Full Range............ 5%.71. Engine bleed valve position.... Decrete ``open'' or ...................... 4.................... ..................... .....................
``closed''.72. De-icing or anti-icing system Discrete ``on'' or ...................... 4.................... ..................... .....................
selection. ``off''.73. Computed center of gravity..... Full Range............ 5%.74. AC electrical bus status....... Discrete ``power'' or ...................... 4.................... ..................... Each bus.
``off''.75. DC electrical bus status....... Discrete ``power'' or ...................... 4.................... ..................... Each bus.
``off''.76. APU bleed valve position....... Discrete ``open'' or ...................... 4.................... .....................
``closed.77. Hydraulic Pressure (each Full range............ 5%.78. Loss of cabin pressure......... Discrete ``loss'' or ...................... 1.................... .....................
``normal''.79. Computer failure (critical Discrete ``fail'' or ...................... 4.................... .....................
flight and engine control systems). ``normal''.80. Heads-up display (when an Discrete(s) ``on'' or ...................... 4.................... .....................
information source is installed). ``off''.81. Para-visual display (when an Discrete(s) ``on'' or ...................... 1.................... .....................
information source is installed). ``off''.82. Cockpit trim control input Full Range............ 5%. means for control
inputs are not
available, cockpit
display trim
positions should be
recorded.
83. Cockpit trim control input Full Range............ 5%. means for control
inputs are not
available, cockpit
display trim
position should be
recorded.84. Cockpit trim control input Full Range............ 5%. means for control
input are not
available, cockpit
display trim
positions should be
recorded.85. Trailing edge flap and cockpit Full Range............ 5%. and cockpit flap
control position may
each be sampled
alternately at 4
second intervals to
provide a sample
each 0.5 second.86. Leading edge flap and cockpit Full Range or Discrete 5%.87. Ground spoiler position and Full Range or Discrete 5%.88. All cockpit flight control Full range 5%. flight control
control column, rudder pedal)\18 minus70 systems, where
19\. lbs. flight control
Control column 85 a function of the
lbs. displacement of the
Rudder pedal 165 only, it is not
lbs. necessary to record
this parameter. For
airplanes that have
a flight control
break away
capability that
allows either pilot
to operate the
control
independently,
record both control
force inputs. The
control force inputs
may be sampled
alternately once per
2 seconds to produce
the sampling
interval of 1.89. Yaw damper status.............. Discrete (on/off)..... 0.5...................90. Yaw damper command............. Full range............ As installed.......... 0.5.................. 1% of full range.....91. Standby rudder valve status.... Discrete.............. 0.5...................--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------\1\ For A300 B2/B4 airplanes, resolution = 6 seconds.\2\ For A330/A340 series airplanes, resolution = 0.703[deg].\3\ For A318/A319/A320/A321 series airplanes, resolution = 0.275% (0.088[deg]0.064[deg])
For A330/A340 series airplanes, resolution = 2.20% (0.703[deg]0.064[deg])\4\ For A318/A319/A320/A321 series airplanes, resolution = 0.22% (0.088[deg]0.080[deg])
For A330/A340 series airplanes, resolution = 1.76% (0.703[deg]0.080[deg])\5\ For A330/A340 series airplanes, resolution = 1.18% (0.703[deg] 0.120[deg]).
For A330/A340 series airplanes, seconds per sampling interval = 1.\6\ For A330/A340 series airplanes, resolution = 0.783% (0.352[deg]0.090[deg])\7\ For A330/A340 series airplanes, aileron resolution = 0.704% (0.352[deg]0.100[deg]). For A330/A340 series airplanes, spoiler resolution =
1.406% (0.703[deg]0.100[deg]).\8\ For A330/A340 series airplanes, resolution = 0.30% (0.176[deg]0.12[deg])
For A330/A340 series airplanes, seconds per sampling interval = 1\9\ For B-717 series airplanes, resolution = .005g. For Dassault F900C/F900EX airplanes, resolution = .007g.\10\ For A330/A340 series airplanes, resolution = 1.05% (0.250[deg]0.120[deg])\11\ For A330/A340 series airplanes, resolution = 1.05% (0.250[deg]0.120[deg]). For A330 B2/B4 series airplanes, resolution = 0.92%
(0.230[deg]0.125[deg]).\12\ For A330/A340 series airplanes, spoiler resolution = 1.406% (0.703[deg]0.100[deg]).\13\ For A330/A340 series airplanes, resolution = 0.5[deg]C.\14\ For Dassault F900C/F900EX airplanes, Radio Altitude resolution = 1.25 ft.\15\ For A330/A340 series airplanes, resolution = 0.352 degrees.\16\ For A318/A319/A320/A321 series airplanes, resolution = 4.32%. For A330/A340 series airplanes, resolution is 3.27% of full range for throttle lever
angle (TLA); for reverse thrust, reverse throttle lever angle (RLA) resolution is nonlinear over the active reverse thrust range, which is 51.54
degrees to 96.14 degrees. The resolved element is 2.8 degrees uniformly over the entire active reverse thrust range, or 2.9% of the full range value
of 96.14 degrees.
\17\ For A318/A319/A320/A321 series airplanes, with IAE engines, resolution = 2.58%.\18\ For all aircraft manufactured on or after December 6, 2010, the seconds per sampling interval is 0.125. Each input must be recorded at this rate.
Alternately sampling inputs (interleaving) to meet this sampling interval is prohibited.\19\ For all 737 model airplanes manufactured between August 19, 2000, and April 6, 2010: The seconds per sampling interval is 0.5 per control input;
the remarks regarding the sampling rate do not apply; a single control wheel force transducer installed on the left cable control is acceptable
provided the left and right control wheel positions also are recorded. [Doc. No. 28109, 62 FR 38390, July 17, 1997; 62 FR 48135, Sept. 12, 1997, as amended by Amdt. 125-32, 64 FR 46121, Aug. 24, 1999; 65 FR 2295, Jan. 14, 2000; Amdt. 125-32, 65 FR 2295, Jan. 14, 2000; Amdt. 125-34, 65 FR 51745, Aug. 24, 2000; 65 FR 81735, Dec. 27, 2000; Amdt. 125-39, 67 FR 54323, Aug. 21, 2002; Amdt. 125-42, 68 FR 42937, July 18, 2003; 68 FR 50069, Aug. 20, 2003; 68 FR 53877, Sept. 15, 2003; Amdt. 125-54, 73 FR 12568, Mar. 7, 2008; Amdt. 125-56, 73 FR 73180, Dec. 2, 2008; Amdt. 125-60, 75 FR 17046, Apr. 5, 2010; Amdt. 125-59, 75 FR 7357, Feb. 19, 2010; Amdt. 125-62, 78 FR 39971, July 3, 2013]