The following questions and answers relate to special rules for top-heavy plans under section 416 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954, as added by section 240 of the Tax Equity and Fiscal Responsibility Act of 1982 (Pub. L. 97-248) (TEFRA), and amended by sections 524 and 713(f) of the Tax Reform Act of 1984 (Pub. L. 98-369):
Table of Contents G--General ProvisionsT--Top-Heaviness DeterminationsV--Vesting Rules for Top-Heavy PlansM--Minimum Benefits Under Top-Heavy Plans
G. General Provisions
G-1 Q. What requirement plans are subject to the top-heavy rules added to the Code by the Tax Equity and Fiscal Responsibility Act and amended by the Tax Reform Act of 1984?
A. All stock bonus, pension, or profit-sharing plans intended to qualify under section 401(a), annuity contracts described in section 403(a), and simplified employee pensions described in section 408(k) are subject to the new top-heavy rules added to the Code by the Tax Equity and Fiscal Responsibility Act and amended by the Tax Reform Act (``TRA'') of 1984.
G-2 Q. Is a multiple employer plan subject to the top-heavy requirements of section 416?
A. A multiple employer plan is subject to the requirements of section 416, but only with respect to each individual employer. Thus, if twelve employers contribute to a multiple employer plan and the accrued benefits for the key employees of one employer exceed 60 percent of the accrued benefits of all employees for such employer, the plan is top-heavy with respect to that employer. A failure by the multiple employer plan to satisfy section 416 with respect to the employees of such employer means that all employers are maintaining a plan that is not a qualified plan.
G-3 Q. As of what date must plan amendments to comply with top-heavy rules be effective?
A. Amendments required to comply with the top-heavy rules must be effective as of the first day of the first plan year which begins after 1983. See Sec. 1.401(b)-1 for the date by which such amendments must be adopted.
T. Top-Heaviness Determinations
T-1 Q. What factors must be considered in determining whether a plan is top-heavy?
(a) In order to determine whether a plan is top-heavy for a plan year, it is necessary to determine which employers will be treated as a single employer for purposes of section 416; what the determination date is for the plan year; which employees are or formerly were key employees; which former employees have not performed any service for the employer maintaining the plan at any time during the five-year period ending on the determination date; which plans of such employers are required or permitted to be aggregated to determine top-heavy status; and the present value of the accrued benefits (including distributions made during the plan year containing the determination date and the four preceding plan years) of key employees, former key employees, and non-key employees.
(b) All employers that are aggregated under section 414 (b), (c), and (m) must be taken into account as a single employer for the plan year in question, and those employees in all plans maintained by the employers that are aggregated must be categorized as key employees, as former key employees, or as non-key employees. See Question and Answer T-12 for the determination of which employees are or were key employees. All plans maintained by the employers in which a key employee participates, and certain other plans, must then be aggregated (the required aggregation group). See Question and Answer T-6 for rules concerning required aggregation. Other plans may in some cases be aggregated with the required aggregation group. See Question and Answer T-7 for rules concerning such permissive aggregation.
(c) Once aggregated, all plans that are required to be aggregated will either be top-heavy or not top-heavy, depending upon whether the aggregation group is top-heavy. A plan or aggregation group will be considered top-heavy if the sum of the present value of the accrued benefits for key employees is more than 60 percent of the sum of the present value of accrued benefits of all employees.
(d) Except as otherwise stated, for purposes of section 416(g), an employee is an individual currently or formerly employed by an employer. Former key employees are non-key employees and are excluded entirely from the calculation to determine top-heaviness. In all cases, the present value of accrued benefits includes distributions made during the plan year containing the determination date and the preceding four plan years. See Questions and Answers T-24 and T-25 for rules concerning the account balances and present value of accrued benefits. For plan years beginning after December 31, 1984, the accrued benefit of an employee who has not performed any sevice for the employer maintaining the plan at any time during the five-year period ending on the determination date is excluded from the calculation to determine top-heaviness. However, if an employee performs no services for five years and then performs sevices, such employee's total accrued benefit is included in the calculation for top-heaviness.
T-2 Q. To what extent are multiemployer plans and multiple employer plans to which an employer makes contributions on behalf of its employees treated as plans of that employer for top-heavy purposes?
A. Multiemployer plans described in section 414(f) and multiple employer plans described in section 413(c) to which an employer makes contributions on behalf of its employees are treated as plans of that employer to the extent that benefits under the plan are provided to employees of the employer because of service with that employer.
T-3 Q. Must a collectively-bargained plan be aggregated with other plans of the employer to determine whether some or all of the employer's plans are top-heavy?
A. A collectively-bargained plan that includes a key employee of an employer must be included in the required aggregation group for that employer. See Question and Answer T-6 for rules concerning required aggregation. A collectively-bargained plan that does not include a key employee may be included in a permissive aggregation group. See Question and Answer T-7 for rules concerning permissive aggregation. However, the special rules in section 416 (b), (c), or (d) applicable to top-heavy plans do not apply with respect to any employee included in a unit of employees covered by an agreement which the Secretary of Labor finds to be a collective-bargaining agreement between employee representatives and one or more employers if there is evidence that retirement benefits were the subject of good faith bargaining between such employee representatives and such employer or employers. In determining whether there is a collective-bargaining agreement between employee representatives and one or more employers, the additional condition of section 7701(a)(46) must be satisfied after March 31, 1984.
T-4 Q. How is a terminated plan treated for purposes of the top-heavy rules?
A. A terminated plan is treated like any other plan for purposes of the top-heavy rules. For purposes of section 416, a terminated plan is one that has been formally terminated, has ceased crediting service for benefit accruals and vesting, and has been or is distributing all plan assets to participants or their beneficiaries as soon as administratively feasible. Such a plan must be aggregated with other plans of the employer if it was maintained within the last five years ending on the determination date for the plan year in question and would, but for the fact that it terminated, be part of a required aggregation group for such plan year. Distributions which have taken place within the five years ending on the determination date must be accounted for in accordance with section 416(g)(3). No additional vesting, benefit accruals or contributions must be provided for participants in a terminated plan.
T-5 Q. How are frozen plans treated for purposes of the top-heavy rules?
A. For purposes of section 416, a frozen plan is one in which benefit accruals have ceased but all assets have not been distributed to participants or their beneficiaries. Such plans are treated, for purposes of the top-heavy rules, as any non-frozen plan. That is, such plans must provide minimum contributions or benefit accruals, limit the amount of compensation which can be taken into account in providing benefits, and provide top-heavy vesting. A frozen defined contribution plan may not be required to provide additional contributions because of the rule in section 416(c)(2)(B).
T-6 Q. What is a required aggregation group?
A. For purposes of determining whether the plans of an employer are top-heavy for a particular plan year, the required aggregation group includes each plan of the employer in which a key employee participates in the plan year containing the determination date, or any of the four preceding plan years. In addition, each other plan of the employer which, during this period, enables any plan in which a key employee participates to meet the requirements of section 401(a)(4) or 410 is part of the required aggregation group. This concept may be illustrated by the following examples:
Example 1. An employer maintains two plans. Key employees participate in one plan, but not in the other. If the plan containing key employees independently satisfies the coverage and non-discrimination rules of sections 410 and 401(a)(4), it may be tested independently to determine whether it is top-heavy. Also, the plan not covering key employees would not be part of a required aggregation group and would not need to be tested to determine whether it is top-heavy. However, if the plan containing key employees satisfies the coverage requirements of section 410(b) or the non-discrimination requirements of section 401(a)(4) only when it is considered together with the other plan in accordance with Sec. 1.410(b)-1(d)(3), the plan not covering key employees would be part of the required aggregation group.
Example 2. A sole proprietor terminated a Keogh plan in 1981. In 1982, the sole proprietor incorporated and established a corporate plan with a calendar-year plan year. For purposes of determining whether the corporate plan is top-heavy for its 1984 plan year, the terminated Keogh plan and the corporate plan would be part of a required aggregation group. The sole proprietor and the corporation would be treated as a single employer under section 414(c). Under Question and Answer T-4, the terminated plan would be aggregated with the corporate plan because it was maintained within the five-year period ending on the determination date for the 1984 plan year and because, but for the fact that it terminated, it would be aggregated with the corporate plan because it covered a key employee.
T-7 Q. What is a permissive aggregation group?
A. A permissive aggregation group consists of plans of the employer that are required to be aggregated, plus one or more plans of the employer that are not part of a required aggregation group but that satisfy the requirements of sections 401(a)(4) and 410 when considered together with the required aggregation group. This concept may be illustrated by the following examples:
(a) An employer maintains two plans:
1. Plan A covers key employees and independently satisfies the requirements of sections 410 and 401(a)(4).
2. Plan B covers no key employees. It also independently satisfies the requirements of sections 410 and 401(a)(4).
(b) As indicated in Question and Answer T-6, Plan B is not required to be aggregated with Plan A. Further, if Plan B provided contributions or benefits that were not at least comparable to the contributions or benefits provided under Plan A, then Plan B could not be permissively aggregated with Plan A because the contributions and benefits would discriminate if the two plans were considered as a unit. However, if the benefits or contributions under Plan B were comparable to those under Plan A, the two plans would be permitted to be aggregated to determine whether or not the group consisting of both plans is top-heavy. If Plan A and Plan B are permitted to be aggregated, and if the permissive aggregation group is not top-heavy, then neither Plan A nor Plan B would be considered top-heavy.
(a) Employer W maintains two plans.
1. Plan C covers salaried employees and independently satisfies the requirements of sections 410 and 401(a)(4).
2. Plan D covers employees who are included in a unit of employees covered by an agreement which the Secretary of Labor has found to be a collective-bargaining agreement between employee representatives and the employer and retirement benefits were bargained for between employee representatives and the employer.
(b) The fact that Plan D is a collectively-bargained plan does not necessarily mean that it may be permissively aggregated with Plan C. In order to be permissively aggregated with Plan C, Plan D must provide contributions or benefits with respect to service with Employer W that are at least comparable to the contributions or benefits provided under Plan C.
T-8 Q. May an employer permissively aggregate multiemployer plans, multiple employer plans and simplified employee pension plans to which the employer contributes with a plan covering key employees or a required aggregated group?
A. Yes. Multiemployer plans, multiple employer plans and simplified employee pensions to which an employer makes contributions may be permissively aggregated with a plan covering key employees or with a required aggregation group if the contributions or benefits provided under the multiemployer plan, multiple employer plan or simplified employee pension by the employer are comparable to the contributions or benefits provided under the plan covering key employees or the plans in the required aggregation group. In making this determination, only the employer's contribution to the simplified employee pension may be used.
T-9 Q. What plans will be treated as top-heavy if they are part of a required aggregation group that is top-heavy?
A. In the case of plans that are required to be aggregated, each plan in the required aggregation group will be top-heavy if the group is top-heavy. No plan in the required aggregation group will be top-heavy if the group is not top-heavy.
T-10 Q. If a required aggregation group is top-heavy, and one plan of the group satisfies the requirements of sections 416 (b), (c), and (d), may other plans in the group include provisions which do not satisfy sections 416 (b), (c) and (d)?
A. No. Each plan in a required aggregation group is top-heavy if the group is top-heavy. Thus, each plan must contain provisions satisfying the requirements of sections 416 (b) and (d). If all the plans are defined contribution plans, only one plan need satisfy the requirements of section 416(c)(2) with respect to any non-key employee who participates in more than one of the plans. If all the plans are defined benefit plans, only one plan need satisfy the requirements of section 416(c)(1) with respect to any non-key employee who participates in more than one of the plans. However, in the case of non-key employees who do not participate in more than one plan, each plan must separately provide the applicable minimum contribution or benefit with respect to each such employee. See Question and Answer M-12 in the case of employees who are covered under both a defined benefit and a defined contribution plan.
T-11 Q. What plans will be treated as top-heavy if a permissive aggregation group is top-heavy?
A. If a permissive aggregation group is top-heavy, only those plans that are part of the required aggregation group will be subject to the requirements of section 416 (b), (c) and (d). Plans that are not part of the required aggregation group will not be subject to these requirements. Thus, if an employer wishes to demonstrate that the plans maintained by the employer are not top-heavy, the employer need consider only the required aggregation group. If, after considering the required aggregation group, it is determined that the plans are not top-heavy, the requirements of section 416 (b), (c) and (d) will not apply to any of the plans. If, on the other hand, the plans required to be aggregated are top-heavy, the employer may wish to determine whether there are any plans that may be permissively aggregated to demonstrate that the plans are not top-heavy. Assuming that there are plans that are eligible for permissive aggregation, the employer may take these plans into consideration. If, after taking such plans into consideration, the net result is that the entire group is not top-heavy, the top-heavy requirements do not apply to any plan in the group.
T-12 Q. For purposes of determining whether a plan is top-heavy for a plan year, who is a key employee?
A. Under section 416(i)(1), a key employee is any employee (including any deceased employee) who at any time during the plan year containing the determination date for the plan year in question or the four preceding plan years (including plan years before 1984) is:
1. An officer of the employer having annual compensation from the employer for a plan year greater than 150 percent of the dollar limitation in effect under section 415(c)(1)(A) for the calendar year in which such plan year ends (see Questions and Answers T-13, T-14, and T-15),
2. One of the ten employees having annual compensation from the employer for a plan year greater than the dollar limitation in effect under section 415(c)(1)(A) for the calendar year in which such plan year ends and owning (or considered as owning within the meaning of section 318) both more than a \1/2\ percent interest and the largest interests in the employer (see Question and Answer T-19),
3. A 5-percent owner of the employer, or
4. A 1-percent owner of the employer having annual compensation from the employer for a plan year more than $150,000 (see Questions and Answers T-16 and T-21).
An individual may be considered a key employee in a plan year for more than one reason. For example, an individual may be both an officer and one of the ten largest owners. However, in testing whether a plan or group is top-heavy, an individual's accrued benefit is counted only once. The terms key employee, former key employee, and non-key employee include the beneficiaries of such individuals. This Question and Answer is illustrated by the following examples:
Example 1. An employer maintains a calendar-year plan. An individual who was an employee of the employer and a 5-percent owner of the employer in 1986 was neither an employee nor an owner in 1987 or thereafter. Even though the individual is no longer an employee or owner of the employer, the individual would be treated as a key employee for purposes of determining whether the plan is top-heavy for each plan year through the 1991 plan year. However, for purposes of determining whether the plan is top-heavy for the 1992 plan year and for subsequent plan years, the individual would be treated as a former key employee.
Example 2. The facts are the same as in example (1), except that the individual died in early 1987 and his total benefit under the plan was distributed to his beneficiary in 1987. Such distribution would be treated as the accrued benefit of the individual for each year through the 1991 plan year. However, such individual would be treated as a former key employee for purposes of determining whether the plan is top-heavy for the 1992 plan year and for subsequent plan years. The conclusions are not affected by whether the beneficiary of the individual is a non-key employee or a key employee of the employer.
T-13 Q. For purposes of defining a key employee, who is an officer?
A. Whether an individual is an officer shall be determined upon the basis of all the facts, including, for example, the source of his authority, the term for which elected or appointed, and the nature and extent of his duties. Generally, the term officer means an administrative executive who is in regular and continued service. The term officer implies continuity of service and excludes those employed for a special and single transaction. An employee who merely has the title of an officer but not the authority of an officer is not considered an officer for purposes of the key employee test. Similarly, an employee who does not have the title of an officer but has the authority of an officer is an officer for purposes of the key employee test. In the case of one or more employers treated as a single employer under sections 414(b), (c), or (m), whether or not an individual is an officer shall be determined based upon his responsibilities with respect to the employer or employers for which he is directly employed, and not with respect to the controlled group of corporations, employers under common control or affiliated service group. A partner of a partnership will not be treated as an officer for purposes of the key employee test merely because he owns a capital or profits interest in the partnership, exercises his voting rights as a partner, and may, for limited purposes, be authorized and does in fact act as an agent of the partnership.
T-14 Q. For purposes of determining whether a plan is top-heavy for a plan year, how many officers must be taken into account?
A. There is no minimum number of officers that must be taken into account. Only individuals who are in fact officers within the meaning of Question and Answer T-13 must be considered. For example, a corporation with only one officer and two employees would have only one officer for purposes of section 416(i)(1)(A)(i). After aggregating all employees (including leased employees within the meaning of section 414(n)) of employers required to be aggregated under section 414(b), (c) or (m), there is a maximum limit to the number of officers that are to be taken into account as officers for the entire group of employers that are so aggregated. The number of employees an employer (including all employers required to be aggregated under section 414(b), (c), or (m)) has for the plan year containing the determination date is the greatest number of employees it had during that plan year or any of the four preceding plan years. For purposes of this Question and Answer, employees include only those individuals who perform services for the employer during a plan year. If the number of employees (including part-time employees) of all the employers aggregated under section 414(b), (c) or (m) is less than 30 employees, no more than three individuals shall be treated as key employees for the plan year containing the determination date by reason of being officers. If the number of employees of all organizations aggregated under section 414(b), (c) or (m) is greater than 30 but less than 500, no more than 10% of the number of employees will be treated as key employees by reason of being officers. (If 10% of the number of employees is not an integer, the maximum number of individuals to be treated as key employees by reason of being officers shall be increased to the next integer). If the number of employees of employers aggregated under section 414 (b), (c) and (m) exceeds 500, no more than 50 employees are to be considered as key employees by reason of being officers. This limited number of officers is comprised of the individual officers, selected from the group of all individuals who were officers in the plan year containing the determination date or any one of the four preceding plan years, who had annual plan year compensation (in the officer year) in excess of 150 percent of the dollar limitation in effect under section 415(c)(1)(A) for the calendar year in which the plan year ends and who had the largest annual plan-year compensation in that five-year period. (The definition of compensation contained in Question and Answer T-21 is to be used for this purpose.) In determining the officers of an employer, an employee who is an officer shall be counted as an officer for key employee purposes without regard to whether the employee is a key employee for any other reason. However, in testing whether the plan(s) is top-heavy, an individual's present value of accrued benefits is counted only once.
Example. A company is testing to see if its plan is top-heavy for the 1985 plan year. In each year from 1980 through 1984 it has more than 500 employees. Assume that (1) because of rapid turnover among officers, the individuals who are officers each year are different from the individuals who are officers in any preceding year, and (2) the annual plan year compensation of each officer exceeds 150 percent of the dollar limitation in effect under section 415(c)(1)(A) for the calendar year in which the plan year ends. Under the limitations, only a total of 50 individuals would be considered to be key employees by virtue of being officers in testing for top-heaviness for the 1985 plan year. Further, the 50 individuals considered as key employees under this test would be determined by selecting the 50 out of 250 individuals (50 different officers each year) who had the highest annual plan-year compensation during the 1980-1984 period (while officers).
T-15 Q. For purposes of section 416, do organizations other than corporations have officers?
A. Yes. For purposes of the top-heavy rules, sole proprietorships, partnerships, associations, trusts, and labor organizations may have officers. This rule is effective for purposes of determining whether a plan is top-heavy for plan years which begin after February 28, 1985.
T-16 Q. Who is a 1-percent owner of the employer?
(a) If the employer is a corporation, a 1-percent owner is any employee who owns (or is considered as owning within the meaning of section 318) more than 1 percent of the value of the outstanding stock of the corporation or stock possessing more than 1 percent of the total combined voting power of all stock of the corporation. If the employer is not a corporation, a 1-percent owner is any employee who owns more than 1 percent of the capital or profits interest in the employer. The rules of subsections (b), (c), and (m) of section 414 do not apply for purposes of determining who is a 1-percent owner.
(b) For purposes of determining who is a 1-percent owner, 5-percent owner, or top-ten owner, value means fair market value taking into account all facts and circumstances.
T-17 Q. Who is a 5-percent owner of the employer?
A. If the employer is a corporation, a 5-percent owner is any employee who owns (or is considered as owning within the meaning of section 318) more than 5 percent of the value of the outstanding stock of the corporation or stock possessing more than 5 percent of the total combined voting power of all stock of the corporation. If the employer is not a corporation, a 5-percent owner is any employee who owns more than 5 percent of the capital or profits interest in the employer. The rules of subsections (b), (c), and (m) of section 414 do not apply for purposes of determining who is a 5-percent owner.
T-18 Q. How do the rules of section 318 apply for purposes of determining ownership in an entity other than a corporation?
A. For purposes of determining ownership is an entity other than a corporation, the rules of section 318 apply in a manner similar to the way in which they apply for purposes of determining ownership in a corporation. For non-corporate interests, capital or profits interest must be substituted for stock.
T-19 Q. Which employees will be considered one of the top ten owners?
(a) For purposes of determining whether a plan is top-heavy for a plan year, the top ten owners are the ten employees who (1) own (or are considered as owning within the meaning of section 318) during the plan year containing the determination date or any of the four preceding plan years both more than a \1/2\ percent ownership interest in value and the largest percentage ownership interests in value of any of the employers required to be aggregated under section 414(b), (c), or (m), and (2) have during the plan year of ownership annual plan year compensation from the employer more than the limitation in effect under section 415(c)(1)(A) for the calendar year in which such plan year ends. The five years for which the test is made will be referred to as the ``testing period.'' An employee whose annual plan year compensation exceeds the section 415(c)(1)(A) limit in effect for the calendar year in which a plan year in the testing period ends who has an ownership interest greater than \1/2\ percent in that plan year is considered to be one of the top ten owners unless at least ten other employees own a greater interest in the employer during any year of the testing period and have annual plan year compensation during such plan year of ownership greater than the section 415(c)(1)(A) limit in effect for the calendar year in which such plan year ends. Ownership each plan year is determined on the basis of percentage of ownership interest in total ownership value and not dollar amounts. Thus, an employee whose stock interest is valued at 15 percent of the total stock value of a corporation in year one that was worth $15,000 is ranked higher than an employee whose stock interest is valued at 5 percent of the total stock value of the same corporation in year three which is now worth $50,000.
(b) If an employee's ownership interest changes during a plan year, his ownership interest for the year is the largest interest owned at any time during the year. If two employees have the same ownership interest in the employer during the testing period, the employee having the largest annual compensation from the employer for the plan year during any part of which that ownership interest existed shall be treated as having a larger interest. Thus, if 25 employees each own 4 percent in value of the employer during the testing period, the 10 employees with the largest single plan year compensation during this period will be considered the top ten owners. For purposes of this Question and Answer, compensation has the meaning set forth in Question and Answer T-21. This Question and Answer is illustrated by the following examples:
Example 1. Corporation K maintains a calendar year defined contribution plan. On January 1, 1986, Corporation K has five owners who owned the following value percentages of K stock: A=50%, B=20%, C=15%, D=10%, and E=5%. On June 30, 1987, the five owners of Corporation K sold all of their shares of stock. The new owners and their respective ownership percentages were: F=40%, G=30%, H=10%, I=10%, and J=10%. Assume that, for 1986, A, B, C, D, and E had annual compensation from Corporation K greater than the section 415(c)(1)(A) limit and that, for 1987, F, G, H, I, and J also had compensation from Corporation K greater than the section 415(c)(1)(A) limit. For purposes of determining whether the plan is top-heavy for the 1991 plan year, the top ten owners will include A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, and J because no 10 individuals during the testing period, 1986-1990, had a greater ownership interest than these individuals.
Example 2. Assume the same facts in Example 1, except that on June 1, 1988, F, G, H, I, and J sold their interests to new owners, K, L, M, N, and O. K, L, M, N, and O owned, respectively, 30%, 30%, 30%, 5% and 5% of the value of the shares of X. Assume also that for 1988 K, L, M, N, and O earned more than the section 415(c)(1)(A) limitation. For purposes of determining whether the plan is top-heavy for the 1991 plan year, the top ten owners will include: A, B, F, K, G, L, M, and C because these eight individuals owned the highest value percentages of the Corporation K stock. Since D, H, I, and J owned equal 10% interests in value, the two employees of this group who had the largest annual plan year compensation during the plan years of their ownership will be the last 2 top ten owners.
T-20 Q. For purposes of determining whether an employee is a key employee under section 416(i)(1)(A), what aggregation rules apply?
A. In the case of ownership percentages, each employer that would otherwise be aggregated under section 414 (b), (c) and (m) is treated as a separate employer. (See section 416(i)(1)(C).) However, for purposes of determining whether an individual has compensation of $150,000, or whether an individual is a key employee by reason of being an officer or a top ten owner, compensation from each entity required to be aggregated under sections 414 (b), (c) and (m) is taken into account. These rules may be illustrated by the following example:
Example. An individual owns two percent of the value of a professional corporation, which in turn owns a \1/10\th of 1 percent interest in a partnership. The entities must be aggregated in accordance with section 414(m). The individual performs services for the professional corporation and for the partnership. The individual receives compensation of $125,000 from the professional corporation and $26,000 from the partnership. The individual is considered to be a key employee with respect to the employer that comprises both the professional corporation and the partnership because he has a two percent interest in the professional corporation and because his combined compensation from both the professional corporation and the partnership is more than $150,000.
T-21. Q. For purposes of testing whether an individual has compensation of more than $150,000, what definition of compensation must be used?
A. The definition of compensation to be used is the definition in Sec. 1.415(c)-2, however, compensation must be determined for a plan year, not a limitation year. Alternatively, compensation that would be stated on an employee's Form W-2, ``Wage and Tax Statement,'' for the calendar year that ends with or within the plan year may be used, although amounts that would have been stated on the employee's Form W-2 but for an election under section 125, 132(f)(4), 401(k), 403(b), 408(k), 408(p)(2)(A)(i), or 457(b) must be included. A plan must use the same definition of compensation for all top-heavy plan purposes for which the definition in this Q and A must be used.
T-22 Q. In the case of an employer who maintains a single plan, when must the determination whether the plan is top-heavy be made?
A. Whether a plan is top-heavy for a particular plan year is determined as of the determination date for such plan year. The determination date with respect to a plan year is defined in section 416(g)(4)(C) as (1) the last day of the preceding plan year, or (2) in the case of the first plan year, the last day of such plan year. Distributions made and the present value of accrued benefits are generally determined as of the determination date. (See Questions and Answers T-24 and T-25 for more specific rules.)
T-23 Q. In the case of an aggregation group, when must the determination whether the group is top-heavy be made?
A. When two or more plans constitute an aggregation group in accordance with section 416(g)(2), the following procedures are used to determine whether the plans are top-heavy for a particular plan year. First, the present value of the accrued benefits (including distributions for key employees and all employees) is determined separately for each plan as of each plan's determination date. The plans are then aggregated by adding together the results for each plan as of the determination dates for such plans that fall within the same calendar year. The combined results will indicate whether or not the plans so aggregated are top-heavy. These rules may be illustrated by the following example:
Example. An employer maintains Plan A and Plan B, each containing a key employee. Plan A's plan year commences July 1 and ends June 30. Plan B's plan year is the calendar year. For Plan A's plan year commencing July 1, 1984, the determination date is June 30, 1984. For Plan B's plan year in 1985, the determination date is December 31, 1984. These plans are required to be aggregated. For each of these plans as of their respective determination dates, the present value of the accrued benefits for key employees and all employees are separately determined. The two determination dates, June 30, 1984, and December 31, 1984, fall within the same calendar year. Accordingly, the present values of accrued benefits as of each of these determination dates are combined for purposes of determining whether the group is top-heavy. If, after combining the two present values, the total results show that the group is top-heavy, Plan A will be top-heavy for the plan year commencing July 1, 1984, and Plan B will be top-heavy for the 1985 calendar year.
T-24 Q. How is the present value of an accrued benefit determined in a defined contribution plan?
A. The present value of accrued benefits as of the determination date for any individual is the sum of (a) the account balance as of the most recent valuation date occurring within a 12-month period ending on the determination date, and (b) an adjustment for contributions due as of the determination date. In the case of a plan not subject to the minimum funding requirements of section 412, the adjustment in (b) is generally the amount of any contributions actually made after the valuation date but on or before the determination date. However, in the first plan year of the plan, the adjustment in (b) should also reflect the amount of any contributions made after the determination date that are allocated as of a date in that first plan year. In the case of a plan that is subject to the minimum funding requirements, the account balance in (a) should include contributions that would be allocated as of a date not later than the determination date, even though those amounts are not yet required to be contributed. Thus, the account balance will include contributions waived in prior years as reflected in the adjusted account balance and contributions not paid that resulted in a funding deficiency. The adjusted account balance is described in Rev. Rul. 78-223, 1978-1 C.B. 125. Also, the adjustment in (b) should reflect the amount of any contribution actually made (or due to be made) after the valuation date but before the expiration of the extended payment period in section 412(c)(10).
T-25. Q. How is the present value of an accrued benefit determined in a defined benefit plan?
A. The present value of an accrued benefit as of a determination date must be determined as of the most recent valuation date which is within a 12-month period ending on the determination date. In the first plan year of a plan, the accrued benefit for a current employee must be determined either (i) as if the individual terminated service as of the determination date or (ii) as if the individual terminated service as of the valuation date, but taking into account the estimated accrued benefit as of the determination date. For the second plan year of a plan, the accrued benefit taken into account for a current participant must not be less than the accrued benefit taken into account for the first plan year unless the difference is attributable to using an estimate of the accrued benefit as of the determination date for the first plan year and using the actual accrued benefit as of the determination date for the second plan year. For any other plan year, the accrued benefit for a current employee must be determined as if the individual terminated service as of such valuation date. For this purpose, the valuation date must be the same valuation date for computing plan costs for minimum funding, regardless of whether a valuation is performed that year.
T-26. Q. What actuarial assumptions are used for determining the present value of accrued benefits for defined benefit plans?
(a) There are no specific prescribed actuarial assumptions that must be used for determining the present value of accrued benefits. The assumptions used must be reasonable and need not relate to the actual plan and investment experience. The assumptions need not be the same as those used for minimum funding purposes or for purposes of determining the actuarial equivalence of optional benefits under the plan. The accrued benefit for each current employee is computed as if the employee voluntarily terminated service as of the valuation date. The present value must be computed using an interest and a post-retirement mortality assumption. Pre-retirement mortality and future increases in cost of living (but not in the maximum dollar amount permitted by section 415) may also be assumed. However, assumptions as to future withdrawals or future salary increases may not be used. In the case of a plan providing a qualified joint and survivor annuity within the meaning of section 401(a)(11) as a normal form of benefit, for purposes of determining the present value of the accrued benefit, the spouse of the participant may be assumed to be the same age as the participant.
(b) Except in the case where the plan provides for a nonproportional subsidy, the present value should reflect a benefit payable commencing at normal retirement age (or attained age, if later). Thus, benefits not relating to retirement benefits, such as pre-retirement death and disability benefits and post-retirement medical benefits, must not be taken into account. Further, subsidized early retirement benefits and subsidized benefit options must not be taken into account unless they are nonproportional subsidies. See Question and Answer T-27.
(c) Where the plan provides for a nonproportional subsidy, the benefit should be assumed to commence at the age at which the benefit is most valuable. In the case of two or more defined benefit plans which are being tested for determining whether an aggregation group is top-heavy, the actuarial assumptions used for all plans within the group must be the same. Any assumptions which reflect a reasonable mortality experience and an interest rate not less than five percent or greater than six percent will be considered as reasonable. Plans, however, are not required to use an interest rate in this range.
T-27 Q. In determining the present value of accrued benefits in a defined benefit plan, what standards are applied toward determining whether a subsidy is nonproportional?
A. A subsidy is nonproportional unless the subsidy applies to a group of employees that would independently satisfy the requirements of section 410(b). If two or more plans are considered as a unit for comparability purposes under Sec. 1.410(b)-1(d)(3), subsidies may be necessary in both plans or else the subsidy may be nonproportional. Thus, for example, in the case of a plan which provides an early retirement benefit after age 55 and 20 years of service equal to the normal retirement benefit without actuarial reduction and if the employees who may conceivably reach age 55 with 20 years of service would, as a group, satisfy the requirements of section 410(b), that subidy is proportional. However, in contrast, consider a plan that provides an early retirement benefit that is the actuarial equivalent of the normal retirement benefit. In determining the early retirement benefit, the plan imposes the section 415 limits only on the early retirement benefit (not on the normal retirement benefit before applying the early retirement reduction factors). In such a plan, a participant with a normal retirement benefit (before limitation by section 415) in excess of the section 415 limits will receive a subsidized early retirement benefit, whereas a participant with a lower normal retirement benefit will not. Thus, such a benefit would be a nonproportional subsidy if the group of individuals who are limited by the limitations under section 415 do not, by themselves, constitute a cross section of employees that could satisfy section 410(b).
T-28 Q. For purposes of determining the present value of accrued benefits in either a defined benefit or defined contribution plan, are the accrued benefits attributable to employee contributions considered to be part of the accrued benefits?
A. The accrued benefits attributable to employee contributions are considered to be part of the accrued benefits without regard to whether such contributions are mandatory or voluntary. However, the amounts attributable to deductible employee contributions (as defined in section 72(o)(5)(A)) are not considered to be part of the accrued benefits.
T-29 Q. How are plans described in section 401(k) treated for purposes of the top-heavy rules?
A. No special top-heavy rules are provided for plans described in section 401(k), except a transitional rule. For plan years beginning after December 31, 1984, amounts which an employee elects to defer are treated as employer contributions for purposes of determining minimum required contributions under section 416(c)(2). However, for plan years beginning prior to January 1, 1985, amounts which an employee elects to have contributed to a plan described in section 401(k) are not treated as employer contributions for these purposes. A plan described in section 401(k) which is top-heavy must provide minimum contributions by the employer and limit the amount of compensation which can be taken into account in providing benefits under the plan.
T-30 Q. What distributions are added to the present value of accrued benefits in determining whether a plan is top-heavy for a particular plan year?
A. Under section 416(g)(3)(A), distributions made within the plan year that includes the determination date and within the four preceding plan years are added to the present value of accrued benefits of key employees and non-key employees in testing for top-heaviness. However, in the case of distributions made after the valuation date and prior to the determination date, such distributions are not included as distributions in section 416(g)(3)(A) to the extent that such distributions are included in the present value of the accrued benefits as of the valuation date. In the case of the distribution of an annuity contract, the amount of such distribution is deemed to be the current actuarial value of the contract, determined on the date of the distribution. Certain distributions that are rolled over by the employee are not included as distributions. See Question and Answer T-32. A distribution will not fail to be considered in determining the present value of accrued benefits merely because it was made before the effective date of section 416. For purposes of this question and answer, distributions mean all distributions made by a plan, including all distributions of employee contributions made during and before the plan year.
T-31 Q. Are benefits paid on account of death treated as distributions for purposes of section 416(g)(3)?
A. Benefits paid on account of death are treated as distributions for purposes of section 416(g)(3) to the extent such benefits do not exceed the present value of accrued benefits existing immediately prior to death; benefits paid on account of death are not treated as distributions for purposes of section 416(g)(3) to the extent such benefits exceed the present value of accrued benefits existing immediately prior to death. The distribution from a defined contribution plan (including the cash value of life insurance policies) of a participant's account balance on account of death will be treated as a distribution for purposes of section 416(g)(3).
T-32 Q. How are rollovers and plan-to-plan transfers treated in testing whether a plan is top-heavy?
(1) the plan making the distribution or transfer is to count the distribution as a distribution under section 416(g)(3), and (2) the plan accepting the rollover or transfer is not to consider the rollover or transfer as part of the accrued benefit if such rollover or transfer was accepted after December 31, 1983, but is to consider it as part of the accrued benefit if such rollover or transfer was accepted prior to January 1, 1984. In the case of related rollovers and transfers, the plan making the distribution or transfer is not to count the distribution or transfer under section 416(g)(3) and the plan accepting the rollover or transfer counts the rollover or transfer in the present value of the accrued benefits. Rules for related rollovers and transfers do not depend on whether the rollover or transfer was accepted prior to January 1, 1984.
T-33 Q. How are the aggregate defined benefit and defined contribution limits under section 415(e) affected by the top-heavy rules?
A. Section 416(h) modifies the aggregate limits in section 415(e) for super top-heavy plans and for top-heavy plans that are not super top-heavy but do not provide for an additional minimum contribution or benefit. A plan is a super top-heavy plan if the present value of accrued benefits for key employees exceeds 90% of the present value of the accrued benefits for all employees. In the case of a top-heavy aggregation group, the test is applied to all plans in the group as a whole. These present values are computed using the same rules as are used for determining whether the plan is top-heavy. In the case of a super top-heavy plan, in computing the denominators of the defined benefit and defined contribution fractions under section 415(e), a factor of 1.0 is used instead of 1.25 for all employees. In the case of a top-heavy plan that is not super top-heavy, the same rule applies unless each non-key employee who is entitled to a minimum contribution or benefit receives an additional minimum contribution or benefit. In the case of a defined benefit plan, the additional minimum benefit is one percentage point (up to a maximum of ten percentage points) for each year of service described in Question and Answer M-2 of the participant's average compensation for the years described in Question and Answer M-2. In the case of a defined contribution plan, the additional minimum contribution is one percent of the participant's compensation. If a plan does not provide the applicable additional one percent minimum or if a plan is super top-heavy, the factor of 1.25 may be used for an individual only if there are both no further accruals for that individual under any defined benefit plan and no further annual additions for that individual under any defined contribution plan until the combined fraction satisfies the rules of section 415(e) using the 1.0 factor for that individual. The rules contained in this Question and Answer apply for each limitation year that contains any portion of a plan year for which the plan is top-heavy. This Question and Answer may be illustrated by the following example:
Example. A Corporation maintains a profit-sharing plan and a defined benefit plan, and these plans constitute a required aggregation group. Both plans use the calendar year for the plan year and the limitation year under section 415. The plans were determined to be top-heavy for plan year 1986. The plans use the 1.25 factor under section 415(e), and non-key employees covered by both the profit-sharing and the defined benefit plan accrue, under the defined benefit plan, 3% of compensation for each year of service (up to a maximum of 30%). The plans become super top-heavy for the 1990 plan year. In order to satisfy section 415, no further accruals and no further annual additions may take place for any employee covered by both plans until the combined defined benefit-defined contribution fraction for such employee is less than 1.0, using the 1.0 factor in place of 1.25.
T-34 Q. May plans be permissively aggregated to avoid being super top-heavy?
A. Yes, plans may be permissively aggregated to avoid being super top-heavy.
T-35 Q. What provisions must be contained in a plan to comply with the top-heavy requirements?
A. Section 401(a)(10)(B) provides that a plan will qualify only if it contains provisions which will take effect if the plan becomes top-heavy and which meet the requirements of section 416. See Questions and Answers T-39 and T-40 for rules on what provisions must be included. Under section 401(a)(10)(B)(ii), regulations may waive this requirement for some plans. See Question and Answer T-38 for a description of plans that need not include such provisions.
T-36 Q. For an employer who has no employee who has participated or is eligible to participate in both a defined benefit and defined contribution plan (or a simplified employee pension, ``SEP'') of that employer, what provisions must be in the plan(s) to comply with the top-heavy requirements?
(a) If the defined benefit plan has no participants who are or could be participants in a defined contribution plan of the employer (or vice versa), the defined benefit plan (or defined contribution plan) need not include provisions describing the defined benefit or defined contribution fractions for purposes of section 415 and, thus, the plan need not contain provisions to determine whether the plan is super top-heavy or to change any plan provisions if the plan becomes super top-heavy. Furthermore, if the plan contains a single benefit structure that satisfies the requirements of section 416 (b), (c), and (d) for each plan year without regard to whether the plan is top-heavy for such year, the plan need not include separate provisions to determine whether the plan is top-heavy or that apply if the plan is top-heavy. If the plan's single benefit structure does not assure that section 416 (b), (c), and (d) will be satisfied in all cases, then the plan must include three types of provisions.
(b) First, the plan must contain provisions describing how to determine whether the plan is top-heavy. These provisions must include (1) the criteria for determining which employees are key employees (or non-key employees), (2) in the case of a defined benefit plan, the actuarial assumptions and benefits considered to determine the present value of accrued benefits, (3) a description of how the top-heavy ratio is computed, (4) a description of what plans (or types of plans) will be aggregated in testing whether the plan is top-heavy, and (5) a definition of the determination date and the valuation date applicable to the determination date. These determinations must be based on standards that are uniformly and consistently applied and that satisfy the rules set forth in section 416 and these Questions and Answers. The provisions in (1) and (3) above may be incorporated in the plan by reference to the applicable sections of the Internal Revenue Code without adversely affecting the qualification of the plan. However, the plan must state the definition of compensation for purposes of determining who is a key employee.
(c) Second, the plan must specifically contain the following provisions that will become effective if the plan becomes top-heavy: vesting that satisfies the minimum vesting requirements of section 416(b), benefits that will not be less than the minimum benefits set forth in section 416(c), and the compensation limitation described in section 416(d). The compensation limitation described in section 416(d) may be incorporated by reference. If a plan always meets the requirements of either section 416(b), (c) or (d), the plan need not include additional provisions to meet any such requirements.
(d) Third, the plan must include provisions insuring that any change in the plan's benefit structure (including vesting schedules) resulting from a change in the plan's top-heavy status will not violate section 411(a)(10). Thus, if a plan ceases being top-heavy, certain restrictions apply with respect to the change in the applicable vesting schedule.
T-37 Q. For an employer who maintains or has maintained both a defined benefit and a defined contribution plan (or a simplified employee pension, ``SEP'') and some participants do or could participate in both types of plan, what provisions must be in the plans to comply with the top-heavy requirements?
A. If an employer maintains (or has maintained) both a defined benefit plan and a defined contribution plan (or SEP), and the plans have or could have participants who participate in both types of plans, then the plans must contain more provisions than those described in Question and Answer T-36. First, the plans may exclude rules to determine whether the plan is top-heavy (or to apply when the plan is top-heavy) only if both plans contain a single benefit structure that satisfies sections 416 (b), (c), and (d) without regard to whether the plans are top-heavy. Second, unless the plans always satisfy the requirements of section 415(e) using the 1.0 factor in the defined benefit and defined contribution fractions as described in section 416(h)(i), the plans must include provisions similar to those in Question and Answer T-36 (for top-heavy) to determine whether the plan is super top-heavy and to satisfy section 416(h) if it is.
T-38 Q. Are any plans exempted from including top-heavy provisions?
A. Section 401(a)(10)(B) exempts governmental plans (as defined in section 414(d)) from the top-heavy requirements and provides that regulations may exempt certain plans from including the top-heavy provisions. A plan need not include any top-heavy provisions if the plan: (1) is not top-heavy, and (2) covers only employees who are included in a unit of employees covered by a collective-bargaining agreement (if retirement benefits were the subject of good faith bargaining) or employees of employee representatives. The requirement set forth in section 7701(a)(46) must be met before an agreement will be considered a collective-bargaining agreement after March 31, 1984.
T-39 Q. Must ratios be computed each year to determine whether a plan is top-heavy?
A. No. In order to administer the plan, the plan administrator must know whether the plan is top-heavy. However, precise top-heavy ratios need not be computed every year. If, on examination, the Internal Revenue Service requests a demonstration as to whether the plan is top-heavy (or super top-heavy; see Question and Answer T-33) the employer must demonstrate to the Service's satisfaction that the plan is not operating in violation of section 401(a)(10)(B). For purposes of any demonstration, the employer may use computations that are not precisely in accordance with this section but which mathematically prove that the plan is not top-heavy. For example, if the employer determined the present value of accrued benefits for key employees in a simplified manner which overstated that value, determined the present value for non-key employees in a simplified manner which understated that value, and the ratio of the key employee present value divided by the sum of the present values was less than 60 percent, the plan would not be considered top-heavy. This would be a sufficient demonstration because the simplified fraction could be shown to be greater than the exact fraction and, thus, the exact fraction must also be less than 60 percent.
Several methods that may be used to simplify the determinations are indicated below.
(1) If the top-heavy ratio, computed considering all the key employees and only some of the non-key employees, is less than 60 percent, then it is not necessary to accumulate employee data on the remaining non-key employees. Inclusion of additional non-key employees would only further decrease the ratio.
(2) If the number of key employees is known but the identity of the key employees is not known (i.e. if the only key employees are officers and the limit on officers is applicable), the numerator may be determined by using a hypothetical ``worst case'' basis. Thus, in the case of a defined benefit plan, if the numerator of the top-heavy ratio were determined assuming each key employee's present value of accrued benefits were equal to the maximum section 415 benefits at the age that would maximize such present value, that assumption would only overstate the present value of accrued benefits for key employees. Thus, if that ratio is less than 60 percent, the plan is not top-heavy and accurate data on the key employees need not be collected.
(3) If the employer has available present value of accrued benefit computations for key and non-key employees in a defined benefit plan, and these values differ from those that would be produced under Question and Answer T-25 only by inclusion of a withdrawal assumption, the present value for the key employees (but not the non-key employees) may be adjusted to a ``worst case'' value by dividing by the lowest possible probability of not withdrawing from plan participation before normal retirement age. If the top-heavy ratio based on this inflated key employee value is less than 60 percent, the present value need not be recomputed without the withdrawal assumption. The methods set forth in this answer may also be used to determine whether a plan is super top-heavy by inserting ``90%'' for ``60%'' in the appropriate places.
T-40 Q. Will a plan fail to qualify if it provides that the $200,000 maximum amount of annual compensation taken into account under section 416(d) for any plan year that the plan is top-heavy may be automatically increased in accordance with regulations under section 416?
A. No.
T-41 Q. If a plan provides benefits based on compensation in excess of $200,000 and the plan becomes top-heavy, must any accrued benefits attributable to this excess compensation be eliminated?
A. No. For any year that a plan is top-heavy, section 416(d) provides that compensation in excess of $200,000 must not be taken into account. However, a top-heavy plan may continue to provide for any benefits attributable to compensation in excess of $200,000 to the extent such benefits were accrued before the plan was top-heavy. Furthermore, section 411(d)(6) will be violated if any individual's pre-top-heavy benefit is reduced by either (1) a plan amendment adding the $200,000 restriction, or (2) an automatic change in the plan benefits structure imposing the $200,000 restriction due to the plan's becoming top-heavy.
T-42 Q. Under a top-heavy defined benefit plan, are the requirements of section 416(d) satisfied if the annual compensation of an employee taken into account to determine plan benefits is limited to the amount currently described in section 416(d) for years during which the plan is top-heavy but higher compensation is taken into account for years before the plan became top-heavy?
A. No. For the top-heavy plan to meet the requrements of section 416(d), compensation for all years, including years before the plan became top-heavy, that is taken into account to determine plan benefits must not exceed the amount currently described in section 416(d). However, if the accrued benefit as of the end of the last plan year before the plan became top-heavy (ignoring any plan amendments after that date) is greater than the accrued benefit determined by limiting compensation in accordance with section 416(d), that higher accrued benefit as of the end of the last plan year before the plan became top-heavy must not be reduced. Providing such higher accrued benefit will not cause the plan to violate section 416(d).
T-43 Q. What happens to an individual who has ceased employment before a plan becomes top-heavy?
A. If an individual has ceased employment before a plan becomes top-heavy, such individual would not be required to receive any additional benefit accruals, contributions, or vesting, unless the individual returned to employment with the employer. See Questions and Answers V-3, M-4, and M-10. In addition, if the individual is receiving benefits based on annual compensation greater than $200,000, such benefits cannot be decreased.
V. Vesting Rules for Top-Heavy Plans
V-1 Q. What vesting must be provided under a top-heavy plan?
A. Under section 416(b), the accrued benefits attributable to employer contributions must be nonforfeitable in accordance with one of two statutory standards. Either such accrued benefits must be nonforfeitable after 3 years of service or the nonforfeitable portion of accrued benefits must be at least 20 percent after 2 years of service, 40 percent after 3 years of service, 60 percent after 4 years of service, 80 percent after 5 years of service, and 100 percent after 6 years of service. The accrued benefits attributable to employer contributions has the same meaning as under section 411(c) of the Code. As under section 411(a), the accrued benefits attributable to employee contributions must be nonforfeitable at all times.
V-2 Q. What service must be counted in determining vesting requirements?
A. All service required to be counted under section 411(a) must be counted for these purposes. All service permitted to be disregarded under section 411(a)(4) may similarly be disregarded under the schedules of section 416(b).
V-3 Q. What benefits must be subject to the minimum vesting schedule of section 416(b)?
A. All accrued benefits within the meaning of section 411(a)(7) must be subject to the minimum vesting schedule. These accrued benefits include benefits accrued before the effective date of section 416 and benefits accrued before a plan becomes top-heavy. However, when a plan becomes top-heavy, the accrued benefits of any employee who does not have an hour of service after the plan becomes top-heavy are not required to be subject to the minimum vesting schedule. Accrued benefits which have been forfeited before a plan becomes top-heavy need not vest when a plan becomes top-heavy.
V-4 Q. May a top-heavy plan provide a minimum eligibility requirement of the later of age 21 or the completion of 3 years of service and provide that all benefits are nonforfeitable when accrued?
A. Yes. For plan years which begin after December 31, 1984, a top-heavy plan may provide a minimum eligibility requirement of the later of age 21, or the completion of 3 years of service, and provide that all benefits are nonforfeitable when accrued. For plan years which begin before January 1, 1985, ``25'' may be substituted for ``21'' in the preceding sentence.
V-5 Q. What does nonforfeitable mean?
A. In general, nonforfeitable has the same meaning as in section 411(a). However, the minimum benefits required under section 416 (to the extent required to be nonforfeitable under section 416(b)) may not be forfeited under section 411(a)(3) (B) or (D). Thus, if benefits are suspended (ceased) during a period of reemployment, the benefit payable upon the subsequent resumption of payments must be actuarially increased to reflect the nonpayment of benefits during such period of re-employment.
V-6 Q. Will a class-year plan automatically satisfy the minimum vesting requirements in section 416(b) if it provides that contributions with respect to any plan year become nonforfeitable no later than the end of the third plan year following the plan year for which the contribution was made?
A. No. Although this vesting schedule is similar to the 3-year minimum vesting schedule permitted by section 416(b)(1)(A), it does not satisfy that minimum. The 3-year vesting schedule in section 416(b)(1)(A) requires that, after completion of 3 years of service, the entire accrued benefit of a participant be nonforfeitable. Under the class-year vesting schedule described above, a portion of a participant's accrued benefit (that portion attributable to contributions for the prior 3 years) is forfeitable regardless of the participant's years of service.
V-7 Q. When a top-heavy plan ceases to be a top-heavy, may the vesting schedule be altered to a vesting schedule permitted without regard to section 416?
A. When a top-heavy plan ceases to be top-heavy, the vesting schedule may be changed to one that would otherwise be permitted. However, in changing the vesting schedule, the rules described in section 411(a)(10) apply. Thus, the nonforfeitable percentage of the accrued benefit before the plan ceased to be top-heavy must not be reduced; also, any employee with five or more years of service must be given the option of remaining under the prior (i.e., top-heavy) vesting schedule.
M. Minimum Benefits under Top-heavy Plans
M-1 Q. Which employees must receive minimum contributions or benefits in a top-heavy plan?
A. Generally, every non-key employee who is a participant in a top-heavy plan must receive minimum contributions or benefits under such plan. However, see Questions and Answers M-4 and M-10 for certain exceptions. Different minimums apply for defined benefit and defined contribution plans.
M-2 Q. What is the defined benefit minimum?
(a) The defined benefit minimum requires that the accrued benefit at any point in time must equal at least the product of (i) an employee's average annual compensation for the period of consecutive years (not exceeding five) when the employee had the highest aggregate compensation from the employer and (ii) the lesser of 2% per year of service with the employer or 20%.
(b) For purposes of the defined benefit minimum, years of service with the employer are generally determined under the rules of section 411(a) (4), (5) and (6). However, a plan may disregard any year of service if the plan was not top-heavy for any plan year ending during such year of service, or if the year of service was completed in a plan year beginning before January 1, 1984.
(c) In determining the average annual compensation for a period of consecutive years during which the employee had the largest aggregate compensation, years for which the employee did not earn a year of service under the rules of section 411(a) (4), (5), and (6) are to be disregarded. Thus, if an employee has received compensation from the employer during years one two, and three, and for each of these years the employee earned a year of service, then the employee's average annual compensation is determined by dividing the employee's aggregate compensation for these three years by three. If the employee fails to earn a year of service in the next year, but does earn a year of service in the fifth year, the employee's average annual compensation is calculated by dividing the employee's aggregate compensation for years one, two, three, and five by four. The compensation required to be taken into account is the compensation described in Question and Answer T-21. In addition, compensation received for years ending in plan years beginning before January 1, 1984, and compensation received for years beginning after the close of the last plan year in which the plan is top-heavy may be disregarded.
(d) The defined benefit minimum is expressed as a life annuity (with no ancillary benefits) commencing at normal retirement age. Thus, if post-retirement death benefits are also provided, the 2% minimum annuity benefit may be adjusted. (See Question and Answer M-3.) The 2% minimum annuity benefit may not be adjusted due to the provision of pre-retirement ancillary benefits. Normal retirement age has the same meaning as under section 411(a)(8).
(e) Any accruals of employer-derived benefits, whether or not attributable to years for which the plan is top-heavy, may be used to satisfy the defined benefit minimums. Thus, if a non-key employee had already accrued a benefit of 20 percent of final average pay at the time the plan became top-heavy, no additional minimum accruals are required (although the accrued benefit would increase as final average pay increased). Accrued benefits attributable to employee contributions must be ignored. Accrued benefits attributable to employer and employee contributions have the same meaning as under section 411(c).
M-3 Q. What defined benefit minimum must be received if an employee receives a benefit in a form other than a single life annuity or a benefit other than at normal retirement age?
A. If the form of benefit is other than a single life annuity, the employee must receive an amount that is the actuarial equivalent of the minimum single life annuity benefit. If the benefit commences at a date other than at normal retirement age, the employee must receive at least an amount that is the acturial equivalent of the minimum single life annuity benefit commencing at normal retirement age. Thus, the employee may receive a lower benefit if the benefit commences before the normal retirement age and the employee must receive a higher benefit if the benefit commences after the normal retirement age. No specific actuarial assumptions are mandated providing different actuarial equivalents. However, the assumptions must be reasonable.
M-4 Q. Which employees must accrue a minimum benefit in a top-heavy defined benefit plan?
A. Each non-key employee who is a participant in a top-heavy defined benefit plan and who has at least one thousand hours of service (or equivalent service as determined under Department of Labor regulations, 29 CFR 2530.200b-3) for an accrual computation period must accrue a minimum benefit in a top-heavy defined benefit plan for that accrual computation period. If the accrual computation period does not coincide with the plan year, a minimum benefit must be provided, if required, for both accrual periods within the top-heavy plan year. For a top-heavy plan that does not base accruals on accrual computation periods, minimum benefits must be credited for all periods of service required to be credited for benefit accrual. (See Sec. 1.410(a)-7). A non-key employee may not fail to accrue a minimum benefit merely because the employee was not employed on a specified date. Similarly, a non-key employee may not fail to accrue a minimum benefit because either (1) an employee is excluded from participation (or accrues no benefit) merely because the employee's compensation is less than a stated amount, or (2) the employee is excluded from participation (or accrues no benefit) merely because of a failure to make mandatory employee contributions.
M-5 Q. Would the defined benefit minimum be satisfied if the plan provides a normal retirement benefit equal to the greater of the plan's projected formula or the projected minimum benefit and if benefits accrue in accordance with the fractional rule described in section 411(b)(1)(C)?
A. No. The fact that this fractional rule would not satisfy the defined benefit minimum may be illustrated by the following example. Consider a non-key employee, age 25, entering a top-heavy plan in which the projected minimum for the employee is greater than the projected benefit under the normal formula. Under the fractional rule, the employee's accrued benefit ten years later at age 35 would be 5% (20% x(10/40)). Under section 416, the employee's minimum accrued benefit after ten years of service must be at least 20%. Thus, because the 5% benefit is less than the 20% benefit required under section 416, such benefit would not satisfy the required minimum.
M-6 Q. What benefit must an employer provide in a top-heavy defined benefit employee pay-all plan?
A. The defined benefit minimum in an employee pay-all top-heavy plan is the same as that for a plan which has employer contributions. That is, the employer must provide the benefits specified in Question and Answer M-2.
M-7 Q. What is the defined contribution minimum?
A. The sum of the contributions and forfeitures allocated to the account of any non-key employee who is a participant in a top-heavy defined contribution plan must equal at least 3% of such employee's compensation (see Question and Answer T-21 for the definition of compensation) for that plan year or for the calendar year ending within the plan year. However, a lower minimum is permissible where the largest contribution made or required to be made for key employees is less than 3%. The preceding sentence does not apply to any plan required to be included in an aggregation group if such plan enables a defined benefit plan required to be included in such group to meet the requirements of section 401(a)(4) or 410. The contribution made or required to be made on behalf of any key employee is equal to the ratio of the sum of the contributions made or required to be made and forfeitures allocated for such key employee divided by the compensation (not in excess of $200,000) for such key employee. Thus, the defined contribution minimum that must be provided for any non-key employee for a top-heavy plan year is the largest percentage of compensation (not in excess of $200,000) provided on behalf of any key employee for that plan year (if the largest percentage of compensation provided on behalf of any key employee for that plan year is less than 3%).
M-8 Q. If an employer maintains two top-heavy defined contribution plans, must both plans provide the defined contribution minimum for each non-key employee who is a participant in both plans?
A. No. If one of the plans provides the defined contribution minimum for each non-key employee who participates in both plans, the other plan need not provide an additional contribution for such employees. However, the other plan must provide the vesting required by section 416(b) and must limit compensation (based on all compensation from all aggregated employers) in providing benefits as required by section 416(d).
M-9 Q. In the case of the waiver of minimum funding standards of section 412(d), how does section 416 treat the defined contribution minimum?
A. For purposes of determining the contribution that is required to be made on behalf of a key employee, a waiver of the minimum funding requirements is disregarded. Thus, if a defined contribution plan receives a waiver of the minimum funding requirement, and if the minimum contribution required under the plan without regard to the waiver exceeds 3%, the exception described in Question and Answer M-7 does not apply even though no key employee receives a contribution in excess of 3% and even though the amount required to be contributed on behalf of the key employee has been waived. Also, a waiver of the minimum funding requirements will not alter the requirements of section 416. Thus, in the case of the top-heavy defined contribution plan in which the non-key employee must receive an allocation, a waiver of the minimum funding requirements may eliminate a funding violation and such waiver will preclude a violation under section 416 even though the required contribution is not made. However, the adjusted account balance (as described in Rev. Rul. 78-223, 1978-1 C.B. 125) of the non-key employees must reflect the required minimum contribution even though such contribution was not made.
M-10 Q. Which employees must receive the defined contribution minimum?
A. Those non-key employees who are participants in a top-heavy defined contribution plan who have not separated from service by the end of the plan year must receive the defined contribution minimum. Non-key employees who have become participants but who subsequently fail to complete 1,000 hours of service (or the equivalent) for an accrual computation period must receive the defined contribution minimum. A non-key employee may not fail to receive a defined contribution minimum because either (1) the employee is excluded from participation (or accrues no benefit) merely because the employee's compensation is less than a stated amount, or (2) the employee is excluded from participation (or accrues no benefit) merely because of a failure to make mandatory employee contributions or, in the case of a cash or deferred arrangement, elective contributions.
M-11 Q. May either the defined benefit minimum or the defined contribution minimum be integrated with social security?
A. No.
M-12 Q. What minimum contribution or benefit must be received by a non-key employee who participates in a top-heavy plan?
A. In the case of an employer maintaining only one plan, if such plan is a defined benefit plan, each non-key employee covered by that plan must receive the defined benefit minimum. If such plan is a defined contribution plan (including a target benefit plan), each non-key employee covered by the plan must receive the defined contribution minimum. In the case of an employer who maintains more than one plan, employees covered under only the defined benefit plan must receive the defined benefit minimum. Employees covered under only the defined contribution plan must receive the defined contribution minimum. In the case of employees covered under both defined benefit and defined contribution plans, the rules are more complicated. Section 416(f) precludes, in the case of employees covered under both defined benefit and defined contribution plans, either required duplication or inappropriate omission. Therefore, such employees need not receive both the defined benefit and the defined contribution minimums.
There are four safe harbor rules a plan may use in determining which minimum must be provided to a non-key employee who is covered by both defined benefit and defined contribution plans. Since the defined benefit minimums are generally more valuable, if each employee covered under both a top-heavy defined benefit plan and a top-heavy defined contribution plan receives the defined benefit minimum, the defined benefit and defined contribution minimums will be satisfied. Another approach that may be used is a floor offset approach (see Rev. Rul. 76-259, 1976-2 C.B. 111) under which the defined benefit minimum is provided in the defined benefit plan and is offset by the benefits provided under the defined contribution plan. Another approach that may be used in the case of employees covered under both defined benefit and defined contribution plans is to prove, using a comparability analysis (see Rev. Rul. 81-202, 1981-2 C.B. 93) that the plans are providing benefits at least equal to the defined benefit minimum. Finally, in order to preclude the cost of providing the defined benefit minimum alone, the complexity of a floor offset plan and the annual fluctuation of a comparability analysis, a safe haven minimum defined contribution is being provided. If the contributions and forfeitures under the defined contribution plan equal 5% of compensation for each plan year the plan is top-heavy, such minimum will be presumed to satisfy the section 416 minimums.
M-13 Q. An employer maintains a defined benefit plan and a profit-sharing plan. Both plans are top-heavy and are members of a required aggregation group. In order to meet the minimum contribution/minimum benefit requirements, the employer decides to contribute 5% of compensation to the profit-sharing plan. What happens if for a particular plan year there are no profits out of which to make contributions to the profit-sharing plan?
A. In this particular situation, in order to satisfy the requirements of section 416(c), the employer must provide the defined contribution minimum, 5% of compensation. This rule is an exception to the general rule that an employer cannot make a contribution to a profit-sharing plan if there are no profits. Alternatively, the employer may provide the defined benefit minimum for this year.
M-14 Q. What minimum contribution or benefit must be received by a non-key employee when he is covered under both a defined benefit plan and defined contribution plan (both of which are top-heavy) of an employer and the employer desires to use a factor of 1.25 in computing the denominators of the defined benefit and defined contribution fractions under section 415(e)?
A. In this particular situation, the employer may use one of the four rules set forth in Question and Answer M-12, subject to the following modifications. The defined benefit minimum must be increased by one percentage point (up to a maximum of ten percentage points) for each year of service described in Question and Answer M-2 of the participant's average compensation for the years described in Question and Answer M-2. The defined contribution minimum is increased to 7\1/2\ percent of compensation. If the floor offset or comparability analysis approach is used, the defined benefit minimum must be increased by one percentage point (up to a maximum of ten percentage points) for each year of service described in Question and Answer M-2 of the participant's average compensation for the years described in Question and Answer M-2.
M-15 Q. May an employer use a different method each year to meet the requirements of Question and Answer M-12 or Question and Answer M-14 without amending the plans each year?
A. No. An employer must set forth in the plan document the method he will use to meet the requirements of Question and Answer M-12 or M-14, as the case may be. If an employer desires to change the method, the plan document must be amended.
M-16 Q. Will target benefit plans be treated as defined benefit or defined contribution plans for purposes of the top-heavy rules?
A. Target benefit plans will be treated as defined contribution plans for purposes of the top-heavy rules.
M-17 Q. Can a plan described in section 412(i) (funded exclusively by level premium insurance contracts) also satisfy the minimum benefit requirements of section 416?
A. The accrued benefits provided for a non-key employee under most level premium insurance contracts might not provide a benefit satisfying the defined benefit minimum because of the lower cash values in early years under most level premium insurance contracts, and because such contracts normally provide for level premiums until normal retirement age. However, a plan will not be considered to violate the requirements of section 412(i) merely because it funds certain benefits through either an auxiliary fund or deferred annuity contracts, if the following conditions are met:
(1) The targeted benefit at normal retirement age under the level premium insurance contract is determined, taking into account the defined benefit minimum that would be required assuming the current top-heavy (or non top-heavy) status of the plan continues until normal retirement age; and
(2) The benefits provided by the auxiliary fund or deferred annuity contracts do not exceed the excess of the defined benefit minimum benefits over the benefits provided by the level premium insurance contract.
If the above conditions are satisfied, then the plan is still exempt from the minimum funding requirements under section 412 and may still utilize the special accrued benefit rule in section 411(b)(1)(F) subject to the following modifications: Although the portion of the plan funded by the level premium annuity contract is exempt from the minimum funding requirements, the portion funded by an auxiliary fund is subject to those requirements. (Thus, a funding standard account must be maintained and a Schedule B must be filed with the annual report). The accrued benefit for any participant may be determined using the rule in section 411(b)(1)(F) but must not be less than the defined benefit minimum.
M-18 Q. May qualified nonelective contributions described in section 401(m)(4)(C) be treated as employer contributions for purposes of the minimum contribution or benefit requirement of section 416?
A. Yes. This is the case even if the qualified nonelective contributions are taken into account under the actual deferral percentage test of Sec. 1.401(k)-1(b)(2) or under the actual contribution percentage test of Sec. 1.401(m)-1(b).
M-19 Q. May matching contributions described in section 40l(m)(4)(A) be treated as employer contributions for purposes of the minimum contribution or benefit requirement of section 416?
A. Matching contributions allocated to key employees are treated as employer contributions for purposes of determining the minimum contribution or benefit under section 416. However, if a plan uses contributions allocated to employees other than key employees on the basis of employee contributions or elective contributions to satisfy the minimum contribution requirement, these contributions are not treated as matching contributions for purposes of applying the requirements of sections 401(k) and 401(m) for plan years beginning after December 31, 1988. Thus these contributions must meet the nondiscrimination requirements of section 401(a)(4) without regard to section 401(m). See Sec. 1.401(m)-1(f)(12)(iii).
M-20 Q. May elective contributions be treated as employer contributions for purposes of satisfying the minimum contribution or benefit requirement of section 416(c)(2)?
A. Elective contributions on behalf of key employees are taken into account in determining the minimum required contribution under section 416(c)(2). However, elective contributions on behalf of employees other than key employees may not be treated as employer contributions for purposes of the minimum contribution or benefit requirement of section 416. See section 401(k)(4)(C) and the regulations thereunder. This Question and Answer is effective for plan years beginning after December 31, 1988. [T.D. 7997, 49 FR 50646, Dec. 31, 1984, as amended by T.D. 8357, 56 FR 40550, Aug. 15, 1991; T.D. 9319, 72 FR 16929, Apr. 5, 2007] Sec. 1.417(a)(3)-1 Required explanation of qualified joint and survivor annuity and qualified preretirement survivor annuity.
(a) Written explanation requirement--(1) General rule. A plan meets the survivor annuity requirements of section 401(a)(11) only if the plan meets the requirements of section 417(a)(3) and this section regarding the written explanation required to be provided a participant with respect to a QJSA or a QPSA. A written explanation required to be provided to a participant with respect to either a QJSA or a QPSA under section 417(a)(3) and this section is referred to in this section as a section 417(a)(3) explanation. See Sec. 1.401(a)-20, Q&A-37;, for exceptions to the written explanation requirement in the case of a fully subsidized QPSA or QJSA, and Sec. 1.401(a)-20, Q&A-38;, for the definition of a fully subsidized QPSA or QJSA.
(1) General rule. A plan meets the survivor annuity requirements of section 401(a)(11) only if the plan meets the requirements of section 417(a)(3) and this section regarding the written explanation required to be provided a participant with respect to a QJSA or a QPSA. A written explanation required to be provided to a participant with respect to either a QJSA or a QPSA under section 417(a)(3) and this section is referred to in this section as a section 417(a)(3) explanation. See Sec. 1.401(a)-20, Q&A-37;, for exceptions to the written explanation requirement in the case of a fully subsidized QPSA or QJSA, and Sec. 1.401(a)-20, Q&A-38;, for the definition of a fully subsidized QPSA or QJSA.
(2) Time for providing section 417(a)(3) explanation--(i) QJSA explanation. See Sec. 1.417(e)-1(b)(3)(ii) for rules governing the timing of the QJSA explanation.
(i) QJSA explanation. See Sec. 1.417(e)-1(b)(3)(ii) for rules governing the timing of the QJSA explanation.
(ii) QPSA explanation. See Sec. 1.401(a)-20, Q&A-35;, for rules governing the timing of the QPSA explanation.
(3) Required method for providing section 417(a)(3) explanation. A section 417(a)(3) explanation must be a written explanation. First class mail to the last known address of the participant is an acceptable delivery method for a section 417(a)(3) explanation. Likewise, hand delivery is acceptable. However, the posting of the explanation is not considered provision of the section 417(a)(3) explanation. But see Sec. 1.401(a)-21 of this chapter for rules permitting the use of electronic media to provide applicable notices to recipients with respect to retirement plans.
(4) Understandability. A section 417(a)(3) explanation must be written in a manner calculated to be understood by the average participant.
(b) Required content of section 417(a)(3) explanation--(1) Content of QPSA explanation. The QPSA explanation must contain a general description of the QPSA, the circumstances under which it will be paid if elected, the availability of the election of the QPSA, and, except as provided in paragraph (d)(3) of this section, a description of the financial effect of the election of the QPSA on the participant's benefits (i.e., an estimate of the reduction to the participant's estimated normal retirement benefit that would result from an election of the QPSA).
(1) Content of QPSA explanation. The QPSA explanation must contain a general description of the QPSA, the circumstances under which it will be paid if elected, the availability of the election of the QPSA, and, except as provided in paragraph (d)(3) of this section, a description of the financial effect of the election of the QPSA on the participant's benefits (i.e., an estimate of the reduction to the participant's estimated normal retirement benefit that would result from an election of the QPSA).
(2) Content of QJSA explanation. The QJSA explanation must satisfy either paragraph (c) or paragraph (d) of this section. Under paragraph (c) of this section, the QJSA explanation must contain certain specific information relating to the benefits available under the plan to the particular participant. Alternatively, under paragraph (d) of this section, the QJSA explanation can contain generally applicable information in lieu of specific participant information, provided that the participant has the right to request additional information regarding the participant's benefits under the plan.
(c) Participant-specific information required to be provided--(1) In general. A QJSA explanation satisfies this paragraph (c) if it provides the following information with respect to each of the optional forms of benefit presently available to the participant (i.e., optional forms of benefit for which the QJSA explanation applies that have an annuity starting date after the providing of the QJSA explanation and optional forms of benefit with retroactive annuity starting dates that are available with payments commencing at that same time)--
(1) In general. A QJSA explanation satisfies this paragraph (c) if it provides the following information with respect to each of the optional forms of benefit presently available to the participant (i.e., optional forms of benefit for which the QJSA explanation applies that have an annuity starting date after the providing of the QJSA explanation and optional forms of benefit with retroactive annuity starting dates that are available with payments commencing at that same time)--
(i) A description of the optional form of benefit;
(ii) A description of the eligibility conditions for the optional form of benefit;
(iii) A description of the financial effect of electing the optional form of benefit (i.e., the amounts and timing of payments to the participant under the form of benefit during the participant's lifetime, and the amounts and timing of payments after the death of the participant);
(iv) In the case of a defined benefit plan, a description of the relative value of the optional form of benefit compared to the value of the QJSA, in the manner described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section; and
(v) A description of any other material features of the optional form of benefit.
(2) Requirement for numerical comparison of relative values--(i) In general. The description of the relative value of an optional form of benefit compared to the value of the QJSA under paragraph (c)(1)(iv) of this section must be expressed to the participant in a manner that provides a meaningful comparison of the relative economic values of the two forms of benefit without the participant having to make calculations using interest or mortality assumptions. Thus, in performing the calculations necessary to make this comparison, the benefits under one or both optional forms of benefit must be converted, taking into account the time value of money and life expectancies, so that the values of both optional forms of benefit are expressed in the same form. For example, such a comparison may be expressed to the participant using any of the following techniques--
(i) In general. The description of the relative value of an optional form of benefit compared to the value of the QJSA under paragraph (c)(1)(iv) of this section must be expressed to the participant in a manner that provides a meaningful comparison of the relative economic values of the two forms of benefit without the participant having to make calculations using interest or mortality assumptions. Thus, in performing the calculations necessary to make this comparison, the benefits under one or both optional forms of benefit must be converted, taking into account the time value of money and life expectancies, so that the values of both optional forms of benefit are expressed in the same form. For example, such a comparison may be expressed to the participant using any of the following techniques--
(A) Expressing the actuarial present value of the optional form of benefit as a percentage or factor of the actuarial present value of the QJSA;
(B) Stating the amount of the annuity that is the actuarial equivalent of the optional form of benefit and that is payable at the same time and under the same conditions as the QJSA; or
(C) Stating the actuarial present value of both the optional form of benefit and the QJSA.
(ii) Use of one form for both married and unmarried individuals--(A) In general. Under the rules of this paragraph (c)(2)(ii), in lieu of providing different QJSA explanations for married and unmarried individuals, the plan may provide a QJSA explanation to an individual that does not vary based on the participant's marital status. Except as specifically provided in this section, any reference in this section to comparing the relative value of an optional form of benefit to the value of the QJSA may be satisfied using the substitution permitted under paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(B) or (C) of this section.
(A) In general. Under the rules of this paragraph (c)(2)(ii), in lieu of providing different QJSA explanations for married and unmarried individuals, the plan may provide a QJSA explanation to an individual that does not vary based on the participant's marital status. Except as specifically provided in this section, any reference in this section to comparing the relative value of an optional form of benefit to the value of the QJSA may be satisfied using the substitution permitted under paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(B) or (C) of this section.
(B) Substitution of single life annuity for married individual. For a married participant, in lieu of comparing the value of each optional form of benefit presently available to the participant to the value of the QJSA, the plan can compare the value of each optional form of benefit (including the QJSA) to the value of a QJSA for an unmarried participant (i.e., a single life annuity), but only if that same single life annuity is available to that married participant.
(C) Substitution of joint and survivor annuity for unmarried individual. For an unmarried participant, in lieu of comparing the value of each optional form of benefit presently available to the participant to the value of the QJSA for that individual (which is a single life annuity), the plan can compare the value of each optional form of benefit (including the single life annuity) to the value of the joint and survivor annuity that is the QJSA for a married participant, but only if that same joint and survivor annuity is available to that unmarried participant.
(iii) Simplified presentations permitted--(A) Grouping of certain optional forms. Two or more optional forms of benefit that have approximately the same value may be grouped for purposes of a required numerical comparison described in this paragraph (c)(2). For this purpose, two or more optional forms of benefit have approximately the same value if none of those optional forms of benefit vary in relative value in comparison to the value of the QJSA by more than 5 percentage points when the relative value comparison is made by expressing the actuarial present value of each of those optional forms of benefit as a percentage of the actuarial present value of the QJSA. For such a group of optional forms of benefit, the requirement relating to disclosing the relative value of each optional form of benefit compared to the value of the QJSA can be satisfied by disclosing the relative value of any one of the optional forms in the group compared to the value of the QJSA, and disclosing that the other optional forms of benefit in the group are of approximately the same value. If a single-sum distribution is included in such a group of optional forms of benefit, the single-sum distribution must be the distribution form that is used for purposes of this comparison.
(A) Grouping of certain optional forms. Two or more optional forms of benefit that have approximately the same value may be grouped for purposes of a required numerical comparison described in this paragraph (c)(2). For this purpose, two or more optional forms of benefit have approximately the same value if none of those optional forms of benefit vary in relative value in comparison to the value of the QJSA by more than 5 percentage points when the relative value comparison is made by expressing the actuarial present value of each of those optional forms of benefit as a percentage of the actuarial present value of the QJSA. For such a group of optional forms of benefit, the requirement relating to disclosing the relative value of each optional form of benefit compared to the value of the QJSA can be satisfied by disclosing the relative value of any one of the optional forms in the group compared to the value of the QJSA, and disclosing that the other optional forms of benefit in the group are of approximately the same value. If a single-sum distribution is included in such a group of optional forms of benefit, the single-sum distribution must be the distribution form that is used for purposes of this comparison.
(B) Representative relative value for grouped optional forms. If, in accordance with paragraph (c)(2)(iii)(A) of this section, two or more optional forms of benefits are grouped, the relative values for all of the optional forms of benefit in the group can be stated using a representative relative value as the approximate relative value for the entire group. For this purpose, a representative relative value is any relative value that is not less than the relative value of the member of the group of optional forms of benefit with the lowest relative value and is not greater than the relative value of the member of that group with the highest relative value when measured on a consistent basis. For example, if three grouped optional forms have relative values of 87.5 percent, 89 percent, and 91 percent of the value of the QJSA, all three optional forms can be treated as having a relative value of approximately 90 percent of the value of the QJSA. As required under paragraph (c)(2)(iii)(A) of this section, if a single-sum distribution is included in the group of optional forms of benefit, the 90 percent relative factor of the value of the QJSA must be disclosed as the approximate relative value of the single sum, and the other forms can be described as having the same approximate value as the single sum.
(C) Special rule for optional forms of benefit that are close in value to the QJSA. The relative value of all optional forms of benefit that have an actuarial present value that is at least 95% of the actuarial present value of the QJSA and no greater than 105% of the actuarial present value of the QJSA is permitted to be described by stating that those optional forms of benefit are approximately equal in value to the QJSA, or that all of those forms of benefit and the QJSA are approximately equal in value.
(iv) Actuarial assumptions used to determine relative values. For the purpose of providing a numerical comparison of the value of an optional form of benefit to the value of the immediately commencing QJSA under this paragraph (c)(2), the following rules apply--
(A) If an optional form of benefit is subject to the requirements of section 417(e)(3) and Sec. 1.417(e)-1(d), any comparison of the value of the optional form of benefit to the value of the QJSA must be made using the applicable mortality table and the applicable interest rate as defined in Sec. 1.417(e)-1(d)(2) and (3) (or, at the option of the plan, another reasonable interest rate and reasonable mortality table used under the plan to calculate the amount payable under the optional form of benefit); and
(B) All other optional forms of benefit payable to the participant must be compared with the QJSA using a single set of interest and mortality assumptions that are reasonable and that are applied uniformly with respect to all such optional forms payable to the participant (regardless of whether those assumptions are actually used under the plan for purposes of determining benefit payments). For this purpose, the reasonableness of interest and mortality assumptions is determined without regard to the circumstances of the individual participant. In addition, the applicable mortality table and the applicable interest rate as defined in Sec. 1.417(e)-1(d)(2) and (3) are considered reasonable actuarial assumptions for this purpose and thus are permitted (but not required) to be used.
(v) Required disclosure of assumptions--(A) Explanation of concept of relative value. The notice must provide an explanation of the concept of relative value, communicating that the relative value comparison is intended to allow the participant to compare the total value of distributions paid in different forms, that the relative value comparison is made by converting the value of the optional forms of benefit presently available to a common form (such as the QJSA or a single-sum distribution), and that this conversion uses interest and life expectancy assumptions. The explanation of relative value must include a general statement that all comparisons provided are based on average life expectancies, and that the relative value of payments ultimately made under an annuity optional form of benefit will depend on actual longevity.
(A) Explanation of concept of relative value. The notice must provide an explanation of the concept of relative value, communicating that the relative value comparison is intended to allow the participant to compare the total value of distributions paid in different forms, that the relative value comparison is made by converting the value of the optional forms of benefit presently available to a common form (such as the QJSA or a single-sum distribution), and that this conversion uses interest and life expectancy assumptions. The explanation of relative value must include a general statement that all comparisons provided are based on average life expectancies, and that the relative value of payments ultimately made under an annuity optional form of benefit will depend on actual longevity.
(B) Disclosure of assumptions. A required numerical comparison of the value of the optional form of benefit to the value of the QJSA under this paragraph (c)(2) is required to include a disclosure of the interest rate that is used to develop the comparison. If all optional forms of benefit are permitted to be grouped under paragraph (c)(2)(iii)(A) of this section, then the requirement of this paragraph (c)(2)(v)(B) does not apply for any optional form of benefit not subject to the requirements of section 417(e)(3) and Sec. 1.417(e)-1(d)(3).
(C) Offer to provide actuarial assumptions. If the plan does not disclose the actuarial assumptions used to calculate the numerical comparison required under paragraph (c)(2) of this section, then, the notice must be accompanied by a statement that includes an offer to provide, upon the participant's request, the actuarial assumptions used to calculate the relative value of optional forms of benefit under the plan.
(3) Permitted estimates of financial effect and relative value--(i) General rule. For purposes of providing a description of the financial effect of the distribution forms available to a participant as required under paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section, and for purposes of providing a description of the relative value of an optional form of benefit compared to the value of the QJSA for a participant as required under paragraph (c)(1)(iv) of this section, the plan is permitted to provide reasonable estimates (e.g., estimates based on data as of an earlier date than the annuity starting date, a reasonable assumption for the age of the participant's spouse, or, in the case of a defined contribution plan, reasonable estimates of amounts that would be payable under a purchased annuity contract), including reasonable estimates of the applicable interest rate under section 417(e)(3).
(i) General rule. For purposes of providing a description of the financial effect of the distribution forms available to a participant as required under paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section, and for purposes of providing a description of the relative value of an optional form of benefit compared to the value of the QJSA for a participant as required under paragraph (c)(1)(iv) of this section, the plan is permitted to provide reasonable estimates (e.g., estimates based on data as of an earlier date than the annuity starting date, a reasonable assumption for the age of the participant's spouse, or, in the case of a defined contribution plan, reasonable estimates of amounts that would be payable under a purchased annuity contract), including reasonable estimates of the applicable interest rate under section 417(e)(3).
(ii) Right to more precise calculation. If a QJSA notice uses a reasonable estimate under paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section, the QJSA explanation must identify the estimate and explain that the plan will, upon the request of the participant, provide a more precise calculation and the plan must provide the participant with a more precise calculation if so requested. Thus, for example, if a plan provides an estimate of the amount of the QJSA that is based on a reasonable assumption concerning the age of the participant's spouse, the participant can request a calculation that takes into account the actual age of the spouse, as provided by the participant.
(iii) Revision of prior information. If a more precise calculation described in paragraph (c)(3)(ii) of this section materially changes the relative value of an optional form compared to the value of the QJSA, the revised relative value of that optional form must be disclosed, regardless of whether the financial effect of selecting the optional form is affected by the more precise calculation. For example, if a participant provides a plan with the age of the participant's spouse and that information materially changes the relative value of an optional form of benefit (such as a single sum) compared to the value of the QJSA, then the revised relative value of the optional form of benefit and the value of the QJSA must be disclosed, regardless of whether the amount of the payment under that optional form of benefit is affected by the more precise calculation.
(4) Special rules for disclosure of financial effect for defined contribution plans. For a written explanation provided by a defined contribution plan, a description of financial effect required by paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section with respect to an annuity form of benefit must include a statement that the annuity will be provided by purchasing an annuity contract from an insurance company with the participant's account balance under the plan. If the description of the financial effect of the optional form of benefit is provided using estimates rather than by assuring that an insurer is able to provide the amount disclosed to the participant, the written explanation must also disclose this fact.
(5) Simplified presentations of financial effect and relative value to enhance clarity for participants--(i) In general. This paragraph (c)(5) permits certain simplified presentations of financial effect and relative value of optional forms of benefit to permit more useful presentations of information to be provided to participants in certain cases in which a plan offers a range of optional forms of benefit. Paragraph (c)(5)(ii) of this section permits simplified presentations of financial effect and relative value for a plan that offers a significant number of substantially similar optional forms of benefit. Paragraph (c)(5)(iii) of this section permits simplified presentations of financial effect and relative value for a plan that permits the participant to make separate benefit elections with respect to parts of a benefit.
(i) In general. This paragraph (c)(5) permits certain simplified presentations of financial effect and relative value of optional forms of benefit to permit more useful presentations of information to be provided to participants in certain cases in which a plan offers a range of optional forms of benefit. Paragraph (c)(5)(ii) of this section permits simplified presentations of financial effect and relative value for a plan that offers a significant number of substantially similar optional forms of benefit. Paragraph (c)(5)(iii) of this section permits simplified presentations of financial effect and relative value for a plan that permits the participant to make separate benefit elections with respect to parts of a benefit.
(ii) Disclosure for plans offering a significant number of substantially similar optional forms of benefit--(A) In general. If a plan offers a significant number of substantially similar optional forms of benefit within the meaning of paragraph (c)(5)(ii)(B) of this section and disclosing the financial effect and relative value of each such optional form of benefit would provide a level of detail that could be overwhelming rather than helpful to participants, then the financial effect and relative value of those optional forms of benefit can be disclosed by disclosing the relative value and financial effect of a representative range of examples of those optional forms of benefit as described in paragraph (c)(5)(ii)(C) of this section if the requirements of paragraph (c)(5)(ii)(D) of this section (relating to additional information available upon request) are satisfied.
(A) In general. If a plan offers a significant number of substantially similar optional forms of benefit within the meaning of paragraph (c)(5)(ii)(B) of this section and disclosing the financial effect and relative value of each such optional form of benefit would provide a level of detail that could be overwhelming rather than helpful to participants, then the financial effect and relative value of those optional forms of benefit can be disclosed by disclosing the relative value and financial effect of a representative range of examples of those optional forms of benefit as described in paragraph (c)(5)(ii)(C) of this section if the requirements of paragraph (c)(5)(ii)(D) of this section (relating to additional information available upon request) are satisfied.
(B) Substantially similar optional forms of benefit. For purposes of this paragraph (c)(5)(ii), optional forms of benefit are substantially similar if those optional forms of benefit are identical except for a particular feature or features (with associated adjustment factors) and the feature or features vary linearly. For example, if a plan offers joint and survivor annuity options with survivor payments available in every whole number percentage between 50% and 100%, those joint and survivor annuity options are substantially similar optional forms of benefit. Similarly, if a participant is entitled under the plan to receive a particular form of benefit with an annuity starting date that is the first day of any month beginning three years before commencement of a distribution and ending on the date of commencement of the distribution, those forms of benefit are substantially similar optional forms of benefit.
(C) Representative range of examples. A range of examples with respect to substantially similar optional forms of benefit as permitted under this paragraph (c)(5) is representative only if it includes examples illustrating the financial effect and relative value of the optional forms of benefit that reflect each varying feature at both extremes of its linear range, plus at least one example illustrating the financial effect and relative value of the optional forms of benefit that reflects each varying feature at an intermediate point. However, if one intermediate example is insufficient to illustrate the pattern of variation in relative value with respect to a varying feature, examples sufficient to illustrate such pattern must be provided. Thus, for example, if a plan offers joint and survivor annuity options with survivor payments available in every whole number percentage between 50% and 100%, and if all such optional forms of benefit would be permitted to be disclosed as approximately equal in value as described in paragraph (c)(5)(ii)(B) of this section, the plan could satisfy the requirement to disclose the financial effect and relative value of a representative range of examples of those optional forms of benefit by disclosing the financial effect and relative value with respect to the joint and 50% survivor annuity, the joint and 75% survivor annuity, and the joint and 100% survivor annuity.
(D) Requirement to provide information with respect to other optional forms of benefit upon request. If a QJSA explanation discloses the financial effect and relative value of substantially similar optional forms of benefit by disclosing the financial effect and relative value of a representative range of examples in accordance with this paragraph (c)(5)(ii), the QJSA explanation must explain that the plan will, upon the request of the participant, disclose the financial effect and relative value of any particular optional form of benefit from among the substantially similar optional forms of benefit and the plan must provide the participant with the financial effect and relative value of any such optional form of benefit if the participant so requests.
(iii) Separate presentations permitted for elections that apply to parts of a benefit. If the plan permits the participant to make separate benefit elections with respect to two or more portions of the participant's benefit, the description of the financial effect and relative values of optional forms of benefit can be made separately for each such portion of the benefit, rather than for each optional form of benefit (i.e., each combination of possible elections).
(d) Substitution of generally applicable information for participant information in the section 417(a)(3) explanation--(1) Forms of benefit available. In lieu of providing the information required under paragraphs (c)(1)(i) through (v) of this section for each optional form of benefit presently available to the participant as described in paragraph (c) of this section, the QJSA explanation may contain the information required under paragraphs (c)(1)(i) through (v) of this section for the QJSA and each other optional form of benefit generally available under the plan, along with a reference to where a participant may readily obtain the information required under paragraphs (c)(1)(i) through (v) of this section for any other optional forms of benefit that are presently available to the participant.
(1) Forms of benefit available. In lieu of providing the information required under paragraphs (c)(1)(i) through (v) of this section for each optional form of benefit presently available to the participant as described in paragraph (c) of this section, the QJSA explanation may contain the information required under paragraphs (c)(1)(i) through (v) of this section for the QJSA and each other optional form of benefit generally available under the plan, along with a reference to where a participant may readily obtain the information required under paragraphs (c)(1)(i) through (v) of this section for any other optional forms of benefit that are presently available to the participant.
(2) Financial effect and comparison of relative values--(i) General rule. In lieu of providing a statement of the financial effect of electing an optional form of benefit as required under paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section, or a comparison of relative values as required under paragraph (c)(1)(iv) of this section, based on the actual age and benefit of the participant, the QJSA explanation is permitted to include a chart (or other comparable device) showing the financial effect and relative value of optional forms of benefit in a series of examples specifying the amount of the optional form of benefit payable to a hypothetical participant at a representative range of ages and the comparison of relative values at those same representative ages. Each example in this chart must show the financial effect of electing the optional form of benefit pursuant to the rules of paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section, and a comparison of the relative value of the optional form of benefit to the value of the QJSA pursuant to the rules of paragraph (c)(2) of this section, using reasonable assumptions for the age of the hypothetical participant's spouse and any other variables that affect the financial effect, or relative value, of the optional form of benefit. The requirement to show the financial effect of electing an optional form can be satisfied through the use of other methods (e.g., expressing the amount of the optional form as a percentage or a factor of the amount payable under the normal form of benefit), provided that the method provides sufficient information so that a participant can determine the amount of benefits payable in the optional form. The chart (or other comparable device) must be accompanied by the disclosures described in paragraph (c)(2)(v) of this section explaining the concept of relative value and disclosing certain interest assumptions. In addition, the chart (or other comparable device) must be accompanied by a general statement describing the effect of significant variations between the assumed ages or other variables on the financial effect of electing the optional form of benefit and the comparison of the relative value of the optional form of benefit to the value of the QJSA.
(i) General rule. In lieu of providing a statement of the financial effect of electing an optional form of benefit as required under paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section, or a comparison of relative values as required under paragraph (c)(1)(iv) of this section, based on the actual age and benefit of the participant, the QJSA explanation is permitted to include a chart (or other comparable device) showing the financial effect and relative value of optional forms of benefit in a series of examples specifying the amount of the optional form of benefit payable to a hypothetical participant at a representative range of ages and the comparison of relative values at those same representative ages. Each example in this chart must show the financial effect of electing the optional form of benefit pursuant to the rules of paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section, and a comparison of the relative value of the optional form of benefit to the value of the QJSA pursuant to the rules of paragraph (c)(2) of this section, using reasonable assumptions for the age of the hypothetical participant's spouse and any other variables that affect the financial effect, or relative value, of the optional form of benefit. The requirement to show the financial effect of electing an optional form can be satisfied through the use of other methods (e.g., expressing the amount of the optional form as a percentage or a factor of the amount payable under the normal form of benefit), provided that the method provides sufficient information so that a participant can determine the amount of benefits payable in the optional form. The chart (or other comparable device) must be accompanied by the disclosures described in paragraph (c)(2)(v) of this section explaining the concept of relative value and disclosing certain interest assumptions. In addition, the chart (or other comparable device) must be accompanied by a general statement describing the effect of significant variations between the assumed ages or other variables on the financial effect of electing the optional form of benefit and the comparison of the relative value of the optional form of benefit to the value of the QJSA.
(ii) Actual benefit must be disclosed. The generalized notice described in this paragraph (d)(2) will satisfy the requirements of paragraph (b)(2) of this section only if the notice includes either the amount payable to the participant under the normal form of benefit or the amount payable to the participant under the normal form of benefit adjusted for immediate commencement. For this purpose, the normal form of benefit is the form under which payments due to the participant under the plan are expressed under the plan, prior to adjustments for form of benefit. For example, assuming that a plan's benefit accrual formula is expressed as a straight life annuity, the generalized notice must provide the amount of either the straight life annuity commencing at normal retirement age or the straight life annuity commencing immediately. Reasonable estimates of the type described in paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section may be used to determine the amount payable to the participant under the normal form of benefit for purposes of this paragraph (d)(2)(ii) if the requirements of paragraphs (c)(3)(ii) and (iii) of this section are satisfied with respect to those estimates.
(iii) Ability to request additional information. The generalized notice described in this paragraph (d)(2) must be accompanied by a statement that includes an offer to provide, upon the participant's request, a statement of financial effect and a comparison of relative values that is specific to the participant for any presently available optional form of benefit, and a description of how a participant may obtain this additional information.
(3) Financial effect of QPSA election. In lieu of providing a specific description of the financial effect of the QPSA election, the QPSA explanation may provide a general description of the financial effect of the election. Thus, for example, the description can be in the form of a chart showing the reduction to a hypothetical participant's normal retirement benefit at a representative range of participant ages as a result of the QPSA election (using a reasonable assumption for the age of the hypothetical participant's spouse relative to the age of the hypothetical participant). In addition, this chart must be accompanied by a statement that includes an offer to provide, upon the participant's request, an estimate of the reduction to the participant's estimated normal retirement benefit, and a description of how a participant may obtain this additional information.
(4) Additional information required to be furnished at the participant's request--The generalized notice described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section must be accompanied by a statement that includes an offer to provide, upon the participant's request, information described in this paragraph (d)(4)(i) and (ii), and a description of how a participant may obtain this additional information.
(i) Explanation of QJSA. If, as permitted under paragraphs (d)(1) and (2) of this section, the content of a QJSA explanation does not include all the items described in paragraph (c) of this section, then, upon a participant's request for any of the information required under paragraphs (c)(1)(i) through (v) of this section for one or more presently available optional forms (including a request for all optional forms presently available to the participant), the plan must furnish the information required under paragraphs (c)(1)(i) through (v) of this section with respect to those optional forms. Thus, with respect to those optional forms of benefit, the participant must receive a QJSA explanation specific to the participant that is based on the participant's actual age and benefit. In addition, the plan must comply with paragraph (c)(3)(iii) of this section. Further, if as permitted under paragraph (c)(2)(v)(B) of this section, the plan does not disclose the actuarial assumptions used to calculate the numerical comparison required under paragraph (c)(2) of this section, then, upon request, the plan must provide the actuarial assumptions used to calculate the relative value of optional forms of benefit under the plan.
(ii) Explanation of QPSA. If, as permitted under paragraph (d)(3) of this section, the content of a QPSA explanation does not include all the items described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, then, upon a participant's request, the plan must furnish an estimate of the reduction to the participant's estimated normal retirement benefit that would result from a QPSA election.
(5) Use of participant-specific information in generalized notice. A QJSA explanation does not fail to satisfy the requirements of this paragraph (d) merely because it contains an item of participant-specific information in place of the corresponding generally applicable information.
(e) Examples. The following examples illustrate the application of this section. Solely for purposes of these examples, the applicable interest rate that applies to any distribution that is subject to the rules of section 417(e)(3) is assumed to be 52\1/2\ percent, and the applicable mortality table under section 417(e)(3) and Sec. 1.417(e)-1(d)(2) is assumed to be the table that applies as of January 1, 2003. In addition, solely for purposes of these examples, assume that a plan which determines actuarial equivalence using 6 percent interest and the applicable mortality table under section 417(e)(3) and Sec. 1.417(e)-1(d)(2) that applies as of January 1, 1995, is using reasonable actuarial assumptions. The examples are as follows:
(i) Participant M participates in Plan A, a qualified defined benefit plan. Under Plan A, the QJSA is a joint and 100 percent survivor annuity, which is actuarially equivalent to the single life annuity determined using 6 percent interest and the section 417(e)(3) applicable mortality table that applies as of January 1, 1995. On October 1, 2004, M will terminate employment at age 55. When M terminates employment, M will be eligible to elect an unreduced early retirement benefit, payable as either a single life annuity or the QJSA. M will also be eligible to elect a single-sum distribution equal to the actuarial present value of the single life annuity payable at normal retirement age (age 65), determined using the applicable mortality table and the applicable interest rate under section 417(e)(3).
(ii) Consistent with paragraph (c) of this section, Participant M is provided with a QJSA explanation that describes the single life annuity, the QJSA, and single-sum distribution options under the plan, and any eligibility conditions associated with these options. Participant M is married when the explanation is provided. The explanation indicates that, if Participant M commenced benefits at age 55 and had a spouse age 55, the monthly benefit under an immediately commencing single life annuity is $3,000, the monthly benefit under the QJSA is estimated to be 89.96 percent of the monthly benefit under the immediately commencing single life annuity or $2,699, and the single sum is estimated to be 74.7645 times the monthly benefit under the immediately commencing single life annuity or $224,293.
(iii) The QJSA explanation indicates that the single life annuity and the QJSA are of approximately the same value, but that the single-sum option is equivalent in value to a monthly benefit under the QJSA of $1,215. (This amount is 45 percent of the value of the QJSA at age 55 ($1,215 divided by 89.96 percent of $3,000 equals 45 percent).) The explanation states that the relative value comparison converts the value of the single life annuity and the single-sum options to the value of each if paid in the form of the QJSA and that this conversion uses interest and life expectancy assumptions. The explanation specifies that the calculations relating to the single-sum distribution were prepared using 5.5 percent interest and average life expectancy, that the other calculations were prepared using a 6 percent interest rate and that the relative value of actual annuity payments for an individual can vary depending on how long the individual and spouse live. The explanation notes that the calculation of the QJSA assumed that the spouse was age 55, that the amount of the QJSA will depend on the actual age of the spouse (for example, annuity payments will be significantly lower if the spouse is significantly younger than the participant), and that the amount of the single-sum payment will depend on the interest rates that apply when the participant actually takes a distribution. The explanation also includes an offer to provide a more precise calculation to the participant taking into account the spouse's actual age.
(iv) In accordance with paragraph (c)(3)(ii) of this section, Participant M requests a more precise calculation of the financial effect of choosing a QJSA taking into account that Participant M's spouse is 50 years of age. Using the actual age of Participant M's spouse, Plan A determines that the monthly payments under the QJSA are 87.62 percent of the monthly payments under the single life annuity, or $2,628.60 per month, and provides this information to M. Plan A is not required to provide an updated calculation of the relative value of the single sum because the value of single sum continues to be 45 percent of the value of the QJSA.
(i) The facts are the same as in Example 1, except that the comparison of the relative values of optional forms of benefit to the value of the QJSA is not expressed as a percentage of the actuarial present value of the QJSA, but instead is expressed by disclosing the actuarial present values of the optional forms and the QJSA. In addition, the Plan uses the applicable interest rate and the applicable mortality table under section 417(e)(3) for all comparison purposes.
(ii) Accordingly, the QJSA explanation indicates that the QJSA has an actuarial present value of $498,089, while the single-sum payment has an actuarial present value of $224,293 (i.e. the amount of the single sum is $224,293) and that the single life annuity is approximately equal in value to the QJSA. The explanation states that the relative value comparison converts the value of single life annuity and the QJSA into an amount payable in the form of the single-sum option (even though a single-sum distribution in that amount is not available under the plan) and that this conversion uses interest and life expectancy assumptions. The explanation specifies that the calculations were prepared using 5.5 percent interest and average life expectancy, and that the relative value of actual annuity payments for an individual can vary depending on how long the individual and spouse live. The explanation notes that the calculation of the QJSA assumed that the spouse was age 55, that the amount of the QJSA will depend on the actual age of the spouse (for example, annuity payments will be significantly lower if the spouse is significantly younger than the participant), and that the amount of the single-sum payment will depend on the interest rates that apply when the participant actually takes a distribution. The explanation also includes an offer to provide a more precise calculation to the participant taking into account the spouse's actual age.
(i) The facts are the same as in Example 1, except that, in lieu of providing information specific to Participant M in the QJSA notice as set forth in paragraph (c) of this section, Plan A satisfies the QJSA explanation requirement in accordance with paragraph (d)(2) of this section by providing M with a statement that M's monthly benefit under an immediately commencing single life annuity (which is the normal form of benefit under Plan A, adjusted for immediate commencement) is $3,000, along with the following chart. The chart shows the financial effect of electing each optional form of benefit for a hypothetical participant with a $1,000 benefit and a spouse who is the same age as the participant. Instead of showing the relative value of these optional forms of benefit compared to the value of the QJSA, the chart shows the relative value of these optional forms of benefit compared to the value of the single life annuity. Separate charts are provided for ages 55, 60, and 65 as follows:
Age 55 Commencement------------------------------------------------------------------------
Amount of
distribution per
Optional form $1,000 of Relative value
immediate single
life annuity------------------------------------------------------------------------Life Annuity.................... $1,000 per month.. n/a.QJSA (Joint and 100 percent $900 per month Approximately the
survivor annuity). ($900 per month same value as the
for survivor Life Annuity.
annuity).Lump sum........................ $74,764........... Approximately 45
percent of the
value of the Life
Annuity.------------------------------------------------------------------------
Age 60 Commencement------------------------------------------------------------------------
Amount of
distribution per
Optional form $1,000 of Relative value
immediate single
life annuity------------------------------------------------------------------------Life Annuity.................... $1,000 per month.. n/a.QJSA (Joint and 100 percent $878 per month Approximately the
survivor annuity). ($878 per month same value as the
for survivor Life Annuity.
annuity).Lump sum........................ $99,792........... Approximately 66
percent of the
value of the Life
Annuity.------------------------------------------------------------------------
Age 65 Commencement------------------------------------------------------------------------
Amount of
distribution per
Optional form $1,000 of Relative value
immediate single
life annuity------------------------------------------------------------------------Life Annuity.................... $1,000 per month.. n/a.QJSA (Joint and 100 percent $852 per month Approximately the
survivor annuity). ($852 per month same value as the
for survivor Life Annuity.
annuity).Lump sum........................ $135,759.......... Approximately the
same value as the
Life Annuity.------------------------------------------------------------------------
(ii) In accordance with paragraph (d)(4)(i) of this section, when Participant M requests specific information regarding the amounts payable under the QJSA, the joint and 100 percent survivor annuity, and the single-sum distribution and provides the age of M's spouse, Plan A determines that M's QJSA is $2,628.60 per month and the single-sum distribution is $224,293. The actuarial present value of the QJSA (determined using the 5.5 percent interest and the section 417(e)(3) applicable mortality table) is $498,896 and the actuarial present value of the single life annuity is $497,876. Accordingly, the specific information discloses that the single-sum distribution has a value that is 45 percent of the value of the single life annuity available to M on October 1, 2004. In accordance with paragraph (c)(2)(iii)(C) of this section, the QJSA notice provides that the QJSA is of approximately the same value as the single life annuity.
(i) The facts are the same as in Example 1, except that under Plan A, the single-sum distribution is determined as the actuarial present value of the immediately commencing single life annuity. In addition, Plan A provides a joint and 75 percent survivor annuity that is reduced from the single life annuity and that is the QJSA under Plan A. For purposes of determining the amount of the QJSA, if the participant is married the reduction is only half of the reduction that would normally apply under the actuarial assumptions specified in Plan A for determining actuarial equivalence of optional forms.
(ii) In lieu of providing information specific to Participant M in the QJSA notice as set forth in paragraph (c) of this section, Plan A satisfies the QJSA explanation requirement in accordance with paragraph (d)(2) of this section by providing M with a statement that M's monthly benefit under an immediately commencing single life annuity (which is the normal form of benefit under Plan A, adjusted for immediate commencement) is $3,000, along with the following chart showing the financial effect and the relative value of the optional forms of benefit compared to the QJSA for a hypothetical participant with a $1,000 benefit and a spouse who is three years younger than the participant. For each optional form generally available under the plan, the chart shows the financial effect and the relative value, using the grouping rules of paragraph (c)(2)(iii) of this section. Separate charts are provided for ages 55, 60, and 65, as follows:
Age 55 Commencement------------------------------------------------------------------------
Amount of
distribution per
Optional form $1,000 of Relative value
immediate single
life annuity------------------------------------------------------------------------Life Annuity.................... $1,000 per month.. Approximately the
same value as the
QJSA.QJSA (joint and 75 percent $956 per month n/a.
survivor annuity for a ($717 per month
participant who is married). for survivor
annuity).Joint and 100 percent survivor $886 per month Approximately the
annuity. ($886 per month same value as the
for survivor QJSA.
annuity).Lump sum........................ $165,959.......... Approximately the
same value as the
QJSA.------------------------------------------------------------------------
Age 60 Commencement------------------------------------------------------------------------
Amount of
distribution per
Optional form $1,000 of Relative value
immediate single
life annuity------------------------------------------------------------------------Life Annuity.................... $1,000 per month.. Approximately 94
percent of the
value of the
QJSA.QJSA (joint and 75 percent $945 per month n/a.
survivor annuity for a ($709 per month
participant who is married). for survivor
annuity).Joint and 100 percent survivor $859 per month Approximately 94
annuity. ($859 per month percent of the
for survivor value of the
annuity). QJSA.Lump sum........................ $151,691.......... Approximately the
same value as the
QJSA.------------------------------------------------------------------------
Age 65 Commencement------------------------------------------------------------------------
Amount of
distribution per
Optional form $1,000 of Relative value
immediate single
life annuity------------------------------------------------------------------------Life Annuity.................... $1,000 per month.. Approximately 93
percent of the
value of the
QJSA.QJSA (joint and 75 percent $932 per month n/a.
survivor annuity for a ($699 per month
participant who is married). for survivor
annuity).Joint and 100 percent survivor $828 per month Approximately 93
annuity. ($828 per month percent of the
for survivor value of the
annuity). QJSA.Lump sum........................ $135,759.......... Approximately 93
percent of the
value of the
QJSA.------------------------------------------------------------------------
(iii) The chart disclosing the financial effect and relative value of the optional forms specifies that the calculations were prepared assuming that the spouse is three years younger than the participant, that the calculations relating to the single-sum distribution were prepared using 5.5 percent interest and average life expectancy, that the other calculations were prepared using a 6 percent interest rate, and that the relative value of actual payments for an individual can vary depending on how long the individual and spouse live. The explanation states that the relative value comparison converts the single life annuity, the joint and 100 percent survivor annuity, and the single-sum options to value of each if paid in the form of the QJSA and that this conversion uses interest and life expectancy assumptions. The explanation notes that the calculation of the QJSA depends on the actual age of the spouse (for example, annuity payments will be significantly lower if the spouse is significantly younger than the participant), and that the amount of the single-sum payment will depend on the interest rates that apply when the participant actually takes a distribution. The explanation also includes an offer to provide a calculation specific to the participant upon request, and an offer to provide mortality tables used in preparing calculations upon request.
(iv) In accordance with paragraph (d)(4)(i) of this section, Participant M requests specific information regarding the amounts payable under the QJSA, the joint and 100 percent survivor annuity, and the single sum.
(v) Based on the information about the age of Participant M's spouse, Plan A determines that M's QJSA is $2,856.30 per month, the joint and 100 percent survivor annuity is $2,628.60 per month, and the single sum is $497,876. The actuarial present value of the QJSA (determined using the 5.5 percent interest and the section 417(e)(3) applicable mortality table, the actuarial assumptions required under section 417) is $525,091. Accordingly, the value of the single-sum distribution available to M on October 1, 2004, is 94.8 percent of the actuarial present value of the QJSA. In addition, the actuarial present value of the life annuity and the 100 percent joint and survivor annuity are 95.0 percent of the actuarial present value of the QJSA.
(vi) Plan A provides M with a QJSA explanation that incorporates these more precise calculations of the financial effect and relative value of the optional forms for which M requested information.
(f) Effective date--(1) General effective date for QJSA explanations--(i) In general. Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (f), this section applies to a QJSA explanation with respect to any distribution with an annuity starting date that is on or after February 1, 2006.
(1) General effective date for QJSA explanations--(i) In general. Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (f), this section applies to a QJSA explanation with respect to any distribution with an annuity starting date that is on or after February 1, 2006.
(i) In general. Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (f), this section applies to a QJSA explanation with respect to any distribution with an annuity starting date that is on or after February 1, 2006.
(ii) Reasonable, good faith transition rule. Except with respect to any portion of a QJSA explanation that is subject to the earlier effective date rule of paragraph (f)(2) of this section, a reasonable, good faith effort to comply with these regulations will be deemed to satisfy the requirements of these regulations for QJSA explanations provided before January 1, 2007, with respect to distributions with annuity starting dates that are on or after February 1, 2006. For this purpose, a reasonable, good faith effort to comply with these regulations includes substantial compliance with Sec. 1.417(a)(3)-1 as it appeared in 26 CFR part 1 revised April 1, 2004.
(2) Special effective date for certain QJSA explanations--(i) Application to QJSA explanations with respect to certain optional forms that are less valuable than the QJSA. This section also applies to a QJSA explanation with respect to any distribution with an annuity starting date that is on or after October 1, 2004, and before February 1, 2006, if the actuarial present value of any optional form of benefit that is subject to the requirements of section 417(e)(3) is less than the actuarial present value (as determined under Sec. 1.417(e)-1(d)) of the QJSA. For purposes of this paragraph (f)(2)(i), the actuarial present value of an optional form is treated as not less than the actuarial present value of the QJSA if--
(i) Application to QJSA explanations with respect to certain optional forms that are less valuable than the QJSA. This section also applies to a QJSA explanation with respect to any distribution with an annuity starting date that is on or after October 1, 2004, and before February 1, 2006, if the actuarial present value of any optional form of benefit that is subject to the requirements of section 417(e)(3) is less than the actuarial present value (as determined under Sec. 1.417(e)-1(d)) of the QJSA. For purposes of this paragraph (f)(2)(i), the actuarial present value of an optional form is treated as not less than the actuarial present value of the QJSA if--
(A) Using the applicable interest rate and applicable mortality table under Sec. 1.417(e)-1(d)(2) and (3), the actuarial present value of that optional form is not less than the actuarial present value of the QJSA for an unmarried participant; and
(B) Using reasonable actuarial assumptions, the actuarial present value of the QJSA for an unmarried participant is not less than the actuarial present value of the QJSA for a married participant.
(ii) Requirement to disclose differences in value for certain optional forms. A QJSA explanation with respect to any distribution with an annuity starting date that is on or after October 1, 2004, and before February 1, 2006, is only required to be provided under this section with respect to--
(A) An optional form of benefit that is subject to the requirements of section 417(e)(3) and that has an actuarial present value that is less than the actuarial present value of the QJSA (as described in paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section); and
(B) The QJSA (determined without application of paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section).
(iii) Application to QJSA explanations with respect to optional forms that are approximately equal in value to the QJSA. Paragraph (c)(2)(iii)(C) of this section, relating to disclosures of optional forms of benefit that are permitted to be described as approximately equal in value to the QJSA, is not applicable to a QJSA explanation provided before January 1, 2007. However, Sec. 1.417(a)(3)-1(c)(2)(iii)(C), as it appeared in 26 CFR part 1 revised April 1, 2004, applies to a QJSA explanation with respect to any distribution with an annuity starting date that is on or after October 1, 2004, and that is provided before January 1, 2007.
(3) Annuity starting date. For purposes of paragraphs (f)(1) and (2) of this section, in the case of a retroactive annuity starting date under section 417(a)(7), as described in Sec. 1.417(e)-1(b)(3)(vi), the date of commencement of the actual payments based on the retroactive annuity starting date is substituted for the annuity starting date.
(4) Effective date for QPSA explanations. This section applies to any QPSA explanation provided on or after July 1, 2004. [T.D. 9099, 68 FR 70144, Dec. 17, 2003, as amended by T.D. 9256, 71 FR 14802, Mar. 24, 2006; 71 FR 26688, May 8, 2006; T.D. 9294, 71 FR 61888, Oct. 20, 2006] Sec. 1.417(e)-1 Restrictions and valuations of distributions from plans subject to sections 401(a)(11) and 417.
(a) Scope--(1) In general. A plan does not satisfy the requirements of sections 401(a)(11) and 417 unless it satisfies the consent requirements, the determination of present value requirements and the other requirements set forth in this section. See section 401(a)(11) and Sec. 1.401(a)-20 for other rules regarding the survivor annuity requirements.
(1) In general. A plan does not satisfy the requirements of sections 401(a)(11) and 417 unless it satisfies the consent requirements, the determination of present value requirements and the other requirements set forth in this section. See section 401(a)(11) and Sec. 1.401(a)-20 for other rules regarding the survivor annuity requirements.
(2) Additional requirements. See Sec. 1.411(a)-11 for other rules applicable to the consent requirements.
(3) Accrued benefit. The definition of ``accrued benefit'' in Sec. 1.411(a)-11 applies when that term is used in this section.
(b) Consent, etc. requirements--(1) General rule. Generally plans may not commence the distribution of any portion of a participant's accrued benefit in any form unless the applicable consent requirements are satisfied. No consent of the participant or spouse is needed for distribution of a QJSA or QPSA after the benefit is no longer immediately distributable (after the participant attains (or would have attained if not dead) the later of normal retirement age (as defined in section 411(a)(8)) or age 62). No consent of the spouse is needed for distribution of a QJSA at any time. After the participant's death, a benefit may be paid to a nonspouse beneficiary without the beneficiary's consent. A distribution cannot be made at any time in a form other than a QJSA unless such QJSA has been waived by the participant and such waiver has been consented to by the spouse. A QJSA is an annuity that commences immediately. Thus, for example, a plan may not offer a participant separating from service at age 45 a choice only between a single sum distribution at separation of service and a joint and survivor annuity that satisfies all the requirements of a QJSA except that it commences at normal retirement age rather than immediately. To satisfy this section, the plan must also offer a QJSA (i.e., an annuity that satisfies all the requirements for a QJSA including the requirement that it commences immediately).
(1) General rule. Generally plans may not commence the distribution of any portion of a participant's accrued benefit in any form unless the applicable consent requirements are satisfied. No consent of the participant or spouse is needed for distribution of a QJSA or QPSA after the benefit is no longer immediately distributable (after the participant attains (or would have attained if not dead) the later of normal retirement age (as defined in section 411(a)(8)) or age 62). No consent of the spouse is needed for distribution of a QJSA at any time. After the participant's death, a benefit may be paid to a nonspouse beneficiary without the beneficiary's consent. A distribution cannot be made at any time in a form other than a QJSA unless such QJSA has been waived by the participant and such waiver has been consented to by the spouse. A QJSA is an annuity that commences immediately. Thus, for example, a plan may not offer a participant separating from service at age 45 a choice only between a single sum distribution at separation of service and a joint and survivor annuity that satisfies all the requirements of a QJSA except that it commences at normal retirement age rather than immediately. To satisfy this section, the plan must also offer a QJSA (i.e., an annuity that satisfies all the requirements for a QJSA including the requirement that it commences immediately).
(2) Consent. (i) Written consent of the participant and, if the participant is married at the annuity starting date and the benefit is to be paid in a form other than a QJSA, the participant's spouse (or, if either the participant or the spouse has died, the survivor) is required before the commencement of the distribution of any part of an accrued benefit if the present value of the nonforfeitable benefit is greater than the cash-out limit in effect under Sec. 1.411(a)-11(c)(3)(ii). No consent is valid unless the participant has received a general description of the material features, and an explanation of the relative values of, the optional forms of benefit available under the plan in a manner which would satisfy the notice requirements of section 417(a)(3). See Sec. 1.417(a)(3)-1. No consent is required before the annuity starting date if the present value of the nonforfeitable benefit is not more than the cash-out limit in effect under Sec. 1.411(a)-11(c)(3)(ii). After the annuity starting date, consent is required for the immediate distribution of the present value of the accrued benefit being distributed in any form, including a qualified joint and survivor annuity or a qualified preretirement survivor annuity, regardless of the amount of such present value.
(i) Written consent of the participant and, if the participant is married at the annuity starting date and the benefit is to be paid in a form other than a QJSA, the participant's spouse (or, if either the participant or the spouse has died, the survivor) is required before the commencement of the distribution of any part of an accrued benefit if the present value of the nonforfeitable benefit is greater than the cash-out limit in effect under Sec. 1.411(a)-11(c)(3)(ii). No consent is valid unless the participant has received a general description of the material features, and an explanation of the relative values of, the optional forms of benefit available under the plan in a manner which would satisfy the notice requirements of section 417(a)(3). See Sec. 1.417(a)(3)-1. No consent is required before the annuity starting date if the present value of the nonforfeitable benefit is not more than the cash-out limit in effect under Sec. 1.411(a)-11(c)(3)(ii). After the annuity starting date, consent is required for the immediate distribution of the present value of the accrued benefit being distributed in any form, including a qualified joint and survivor annuity or a qualified preretirement survivor annuity, regardless of the amount of such present value.
(ii) In determining the present value of any nonforfeitable accrued benefit, a defined benefit plan is limited by the interest rate restriction as set forth in paragraph (d) of this section.
(iii) Paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section applies to distributions made on or after October 17, 2000. For distributions prior to October 17, 2000, Sec. 1.417(e)-1(b)(2)(i) in effect prior to October 17, 2000 (as contained in 26 CFR part 1 revised as of April 1, 2000) applies.
(3) Time of consent. (i) Written consent of the participant and the participant's spouse to the distribution must be made not more than 90 days before the annuity starting date, and, except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (b)(3)(iii) and (b)(3)(iv) of this section, no later than the annuity starting date.
(i) Written consent of the participant and the participant's spouse to the distribution must be made not more than 90 days before the annuity starting date, and, except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (b)(3)(iii) and (b)(3)(iv) of this section, no later than the annuity starting date.
(ii) A plan must provide participants with the written explanation of the QJSA required by section 417(a)(3) no less than 30 days and no more than 90 days before the annuity starting date, except as provided in paragraph (b)(3)(iv) of this section regarding retroactive annuity starting dates. However, if the participant, after having received the written explanation of the QJSA, affirmatively elects a form of distribution and the spouse consents to that form of distribution (if necessary), a plan will not fail to satisfy the requirements of section 417(a) merely because the written explanation was provided to the participant less than 30 days before the annuity starting date, provided that the following conditions are met:
(A) The plan administrator provides information to the participant clearly indicating that (in accordance with the first sentence of this paragraph (b)(3)(ii)) the participant has a right to at least 30 days to consider whether to waive the QJSA and consent to a form of distribution other than a QJSA.
(B) The participant is permitted to revoke an affirmative distribution election at least until the annuity starting date, or, if later, at any time prior to the expiration of the 7-day period that begins the day after the explanation of the QJSA is provided to the participant.
(C) The annuity starting date is after the date that the explanation of the QJSA is provided to the participant.
(D) Distribution in accordance with the affirmative election does not commence before the expiration of the 7-day period that begins the day after the explanation of the QJSA is provided to the participant.
(iii) The plan may permit the annuity starting date to be before the date that any affirmative distribution election is made by the participant (and before the date that distribution is permitted to commence under paragraph (b)(3)(ii)(D) of this section), provided that, except as otherwise provided in paragraph (b)(3)(vii) of this section regarding administrative delay, distributions commence not more than 90 days after the explanation of the QJSA is provided.
(iv) Retroactive annuity starting dates. (A) Notwithstanding the requirements of paragraphs (b)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section, pursuant to section 417(a)(7), a defined benefit plan is permitted to provide benefits based on a retroactive annuity starting date if the requirements described in paragraph (b)(3)(v) of this section are satisfied. A defined benefit plan is not required to provide for retroactive annuity starting dates. If a plan does provide for a retroactive annuity starting date, it may impose conditions on the availability of a retroactive annuity starting date in addition to those imposed by paragraph (b)(3)(v) of this section, provided that imposition of those additional conditions does not violate any of the rules applicable to qualified plans. For example, a plan that includes a single sum payment as a benefit option may limit the election of a retroactive annuity starting date to those participants who do not elect the single sum payment. A defined contribution plan is not permitted to have a retroactive annuity starting date.
(A) Notwithstanding the requirements of paragraphs (b)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section, pursuant to section 417(a)(7), a defined benefit plan is permitted to provide benefits based on a retroactive annuity starting date if the requirements described in paragraph (b)(3)(v) of this section are satisfied. A defined benefit plan is not required to provide for retroactive annuity starting dates. If a plan does provide for a retroactive annuity starting date, it may impose conditions on the availability of a retroactive annuity starting date in addition to those imposed by paragraph (b)(3)(v) of this section, provided that imposition of those additional conditions does not violate any of the rules applicable to qualified plans. For example, a plan that includes a single sum payment as a benefit option may limit the election of a retroactive annuity starting date to those participants who do not elect the single sum payment. A defined contribution plan is not permitted to have a retroactive annuity starting date.
(B) For purposes of this section, a ``retroactive annuity starting date'' is an annuity starting date affirmatively elected by a participant that occurs on or before the date the written explanation required by section 417(a)(3) is provided to the participant. In order for a plan to treat a participant as having elected a retroactive annuity starting date, future periodic payments with respect to a participant who elects a retroactive annuity starting date must be the same as the future periodic payments, if any, that would have been paid with respect to the participant had payments actually commenced on the retroactive annuity starting date. The participant must receive a make-up payment to reflect any missed payment or payments for the period from the retroactive annuity starting date to the date of the actual make-up payment (with an appropriate adjustment for interest from the date the missed payment or payments would have been made to the date of the actual make-up payment). Thus, the benefit determined as of the retroactive annuity starting date must satisfy the requirements of sections 417(e)(3), if applicable, and section 415 with the applicable interest rate and applicable mortality table determined as of that date. Similarly, a participant is not permitted to elect a retroactive annuity starting date that precedes the date upon which the participant could have otherwise started receiving benefits (e.g., in the case of an ongoing plan, the earlier of the participant's termination of employment or the participant's normal retirement age) under the terms of the plan in effect as of the retroactive annuity starting date. A plan does not fail to treat a participant as having elected a retroactive annuity starting date as described in this paragraph (b)(3)(iv)(B) merely because the distributions are adjusted to the extent necessary to satisfy the requirements of paragraph (b)(3)(v)(B) and (C) of this section relating to sections 415 and 417(e)(3).
(C) If the participant's spouse as of the retroactive annuity starting date would not be the participant's spouse determined as if the date distributions commence was the participant's annuity starting date, consent of that former spouse is not needed to waive the QJSA with respect to the retroactive annuity starting date, unless otherwise provided under a qualified domestic relations order (as defined in section 414(p)).
(D) A distribution payable pursuant to a retroactive annuity starting date election is treated as excepted from the present value requirements of paragraph (d) of this section under paragraph (d)(6) of this section if the distribution form would have been described in paragraph (d)(6) of this section had the distribution actually commenced on the retroactive annuity starting date. Similarly, annuity payments that otherwise satisfy the requirements of a QJSA under section 417(b) will not fail to be treated as a QJSA for purposes of section 415(b)(2)(B) merely because a retroactive annuity starting date is elected and a make-up payment is made. Also, for purposes of section 72(t)(2)(A)(iv), a distribution that would otherwise be one of a series of substantially equal periodic payments will be treated as one of a series of substantially equal periodic payments notwithstanding the distribution of a make-up payment provided for in paragraph (b)(3)(iv)(B) of this section.
(E) The following example illustrates the application of paragraph (b)(3)(iv)(D) of this section:
Example. Under the terms of a defined benefit plan, participant A is entitled to a QJSA with a monthly payment of $1,500 beginning as of his annuity starting date. Due to administrative error, the QJSA explanation is provided to A after the annuity starting date. After receiving the QJSA explanation A elects a retroactive annuity starting date. Pursuant to this election, A begins to receive a monthly payment of $1,500 and also receives a make-up payment of $10,000. Under these circumstances the monthly payments may be treated as a QJSA for purposes of section 415(b)(2)(B). In addition, the monthly payments of $1,500 and the make-up payment of $10,000 may be treated as part of as series of substantially equal periodic payments for purpose of section 72(t)(2)(A)(iv).
(v) Requirements applicable to retroactive annuity starting dates. A distribution is permitted to have a retroactive annuity starting date with respect to a participant's benefit only if the following requirements are met:
(A) The participant's spouse (including an alternate payee who is treated as the spouse under a qualified domestic relations order (QDRO), as defined in section 414(p)), determined as if the date distributions commence were the participant's annuity starting date, consents to the distribution in a manner that would satisfy the requirements of section 417(a)(2). The spousal consent requirement of this paragraph (b)(3)(v)(A) is satisfied if such spouse consents to the distribution under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section. The spousal consent requirement of this paragraph (b)(3)(v)(A) does not apply if the amount of such spouse's survivor annuity payments under the retroactive annuity starting date election is no less than the amount that the survivor payments to such spouse would have been under an optional form of benefit that would satisfy the requirements to be a QJSA under section 417(b) and that has an annuity starting date after the date that the explanation was provided.
(B) The distribution (including appropriate interest adjustments) provided based on the retroactive annuity starting date would satisfy the requirements of section 415 if the date the distribution commences is substituted for the annuity starting date for all purposes, including for purposes of determining the applicable interest rate and the applicable mortality table. However, in the case of a form of benefit that would have been excepted from the present value requirements of paragraph (d) of this section under paragraph (d)(6) of this section if the distribution had actually commenced on the retroactive annuity starting date, the requirement to apply section 415 as of the date distribution commences set forth in this paragraph (b)(3)(v)(B) does not apply if the date distribution commences is twelve months or less from the retroactive annuity starting date.
(C) In the case of a form of benefit that would have been subject to section 417(e)(3) and paragraph (d) of this section if distributions had commenced as of the retroactive annuity starting date, the distribution is no less than the benefit produced by applying the applicable interest rate and the applicable mortality table determined as of the date the distribution commences to the annuity form that corresponds to the annuity form that was used to determine the benefit amount as of the retroactive annuity starting date. Thus, for example, if a distribution paid pursuant to an election of a retroactive annuity starting date is a single-sum distribution that is based on the present value of the straight life annuity payable at normal retirement age, then the amount of the distribution must be no less than the present value of the annuity payable at normal retirement age, determined as of the distribution date using the applicable mortality table and applicable interest rate that apply as of the distribution date. Likewise, if a distribution paid pursuant to an election of a retroactive annuity starting date is a single-sum distribution that is based on the present value of the early retirement annuity payable as of the retroactive annuity starting date, then the amount of the distribution must be no less than the present value of the early retirement annuity payable as of the distribution date, determined as of the distribution date using the applicable mortality table and applicable interest rate that apply as of the distribution date.
(vi) Timing of notice and consent requirements in the case of retroactive annuity starting dates. In the case of a retroactive annuity starting date, the date of the first actual payment of benefits based on the retroactive annuity starting date is substituted for the annuity starting date for purposes of satisfying the timing requirements for giving consent and providing an explanation of the QJSA provided in paragraphs (b)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section, except that the substitution does not apply for purposes of paragraph (b)(3)(iii) of this section. Thus, the written explanation required by section 417(a)(3)(A) must generally be provided no less than 30 days and no more than 90 days before the date of the first payment of benefits and the election to receive the distribution must be made after the written explanation is provided and on or before the date of the first payment. Similarly, the written explanation may also be provided less than 30 days prior to the first payment of benefits if the requirements of paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section would be satisfied if the date of the first payment is substituted for the annuity starting date.
(vii) Administrative delay. A plan will not fail to satisfy the 90-day timing requirements of paragraphs (b)(3)(iii) and (vi) of this section merely because, due solely to administrative delay, a distribution commences more than 90 days after the written explanation of the QJSA is provided to the participant.
(viii) The following example illustrates the provisions of this paragraph (b)(3):
Example. Employee E, a married participant in a defined benefit plan who has terminated employment, is provided with the explanation of the QJSA on November 28.
Employee E elects (with spousal consent) on December 2 to waive the QJSA and receive an immediate distribution in the form of a single life annuity. The plan may permit Employee E to receive payments with an annuity starting date of December 1, provided that the first payment is made no earlier than December 6 and the participant does not revoke the election before that date. The plan can make the remaining monthly payments on the first day of each month thereafter in accordance with its regular payment schedule.
(ix) The additional rules of this paragraph (b)(3) concerning the notice and consent requirements of section 417 apply to distributions on or after September 22, 1995. For distributions before September 22, 1995, the additional rules concerning the notice and consent requirements of section 417 in Sec. 1.417(e)-1(b)(3) in effect prior to September 22, 1995 (see Sec. 1.417(e)-1 (b)(3) in 26 CFR Part 1 revised as of April 1, 1995) apply.
(4) Delegation to Commissioner. The Commissioner, in revenue rulings, notices, and other guidance published in the Internal Revenue Bulletin, may modify, or provide additional guidance with respect to, the notice and consent requirements of this section. See Sec. 601.601(d)(2)(ii)(b) of this chapter.
(c) Permitted distributions. A plan may not require that a participant or surviving spouse begin to receive benefits without satisfying paragraph (b) of this section while such benefits are immediately distributable, (see paragraph (b)(1) of this section). Once benefits are no longer immediately distributable, all benefits that the plan requires to begin must be provided in the form of a QJSA and QPSA unless the applicable written explanation, election and consent requirements of section 417 are satisfied.
(d) Present value requirement--(1) General rule. A defined benefit plan must provide that the present value of any accrued benefit and the amount (subject to sections 411(c)(3) and 415) of any distribution, including a single sum, must not be less than the amount calculated using the applicable interest rate described in paragraph (d)(3) of this section (determined for the month described in paragraph (d)(4) of this section) and the applicable mortality table described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section. The present value of any optional form of benefit cannot be less than the present value of the normal retirement benefit determined in accordance with the preceding sentence. The same rules used for the plan under this paragraph (d) must also be used to compute the present value of the benefit for purposes of determining whether consent for a distribution is required under paragraph (b) of this section.
(1) General rule. A defined benefit plan must provide that the present value of any accrued benefit and the amount (subject to sections 411(c)(3) and 415) of any distribution, including a single sum, must not be less than the amount calculated using the applicable interest rate described in paragraph (d)(3) of this section (determined for the month described in paragraph (d)(4) of this section) and the applicable mortality table described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section. The present value of any optional form of benefit cannot be less than the present value of the normal retirement benefit determined in accordance with the preceding sentence. The same rules used for the plan under this paragraph (d) must also be used to compute the present value of the benefit for purposes of determining whether consent for a distribution is required under paragraph (b) of this section.
(2) Applicable mortality table. The applicable mortality table is the mortality table based on the prevailing commissioners' standard table (described in section 807(d)(5)(A)) used to determine reserves for group annuity contracts issued on the date as of which present value is being determined (without regard to any other subparagraph of section 807(d)(5)), that is prescribed by the Commissioner in revenue rulings, notices, or other guidance published in the Internal Revenue Bulletin (see Sec. 601.601(d)(2)(ii)(b) of this chapter). The Commissioner may prescribe rules that apply in the case of a change to the prevailing commissioners' standard table (described in section 807(d)(5)(A)) used to determine reserves for group annuity contracts, in revenue rulings, notices, or other guidance published in the Internal Revenue Bulletin (see Sec. 601.601(d)(2)(ii)(b) of this chapter).
(3) Applicable interest rate--(i) General rule. The applicable interest rate for a month is the annual interest rate on 30-year Treasury securities as specified by the Commissioner for that month in revenue rulings, notices or other guidance published in the Internal Revenue Bulletin (see Sec. 601.601(d)(2)(ii)(b) of this chapter).
(i) General rule. The applicable interest rate for a month is the annual interest rate on 30-year Treasury securities as specified by the Commissioner for that month in revenue rulings, notices or other guidance published in the Internal Revenue Bulletin (see Sec. 601.601(d)(2)(ii)(b) of this chapter).
(ii) Example. This example illustrates the rules of this paragraph (d)(3):
Example. Plan A is a calendar year plan. For its 1995 plan year, Plan A provides that the applicable mortality table is the table described in Rev. Rul. 95-6 (1995-1 C.B. 80), and that the applicable interest rate is the annual interest rate on 30-year Treasury securities as specified by the Commissioner for the first full calendar month preceding the calendar month that contains the annuity starting date. Participant P is age 65 in January 1995, which is the month that contains P's annuity starting date. P has an accrued benefit payable monthly of $1,000 and has elected to receive a distribution in the form of a single sum in January 1995. The annual interest rate on 30-year Treasury securities as published by the Commissioner for December 1994 is 7.87 percent. To satisfy the requirements of section 417(e)(3) and this paragraph (d), the single sum received by P may not be less than $111,351.
(4) Time for determining interest rate--(i) General rule. Except as provided in paragraph (d)(4)(iv) or (v) of this section, the applicable interest rate to be used for a distribution is the rate determined under paragraph (d)(3) of this section for the applicable lookback month. The applicable lookback month for a distribution is the lookback month (as described in paragraph (d)(4)(iii) of this section) for the month (or other longer stability period described in paragraph (d)(4)(ii) of this section) that contains the annuity starting date for the distribution. The time and method for determining the applicable interest rate for each participant's distribution must be determined in a consistent manner that is applied uniformly to all participants in the plan.
(i) General rule. Except as provided in paragraph (d)(4)(iv) or (v) of this section, the applicable interest rate to be used for a distribution is the rate determined under paragraph (d)(3) of this section for the applicable lookback month. The applicable lookback month for a distribution is the lookback month (as described in paragraph (d)(4)(iii) of this section) for the month (or other longer stability period described in paragraph (d)(4)(ii) of this section) that contains the annuity starting date for the distribution. The time and method for determining the applicable interest rate for each participant's distribution must be determined in a consistent manner that is applied uniformly to all participants in the plan.
(ii) Stability period. A plan must specify the period for which the applicable interest rate remains constant. This stability period may be one calendar month, one plan quarter, one calendar quarter, one plan year, or one calendar year.
(iii) Lookback month. A plan must specify the lookback month that is used to determine the applicable interest rate. The lookback month may be the first, second, third, fourth, or fifth full calendar month preceding the first day of the stability period.
(iv) Permitted average interest rate. A plan may apply the rules of paragraph (d)(4)(i) of this section by substituting a permitted average interest rate with respect to the plan's stability period for the rate determined under paragraph (d)(3) of this section for the applicable lookback month for the stability period. For this purpose, a permitted average interest rate with respect to a stability period is an interest rate that is computed by averaging the applicable interest rates determined under paragraph (d)(3) of this section for two or more consecutive months from among the first, second, third, fourth, and fifth calendar months preceding the first day of the stability period. For this paragraph (d)(4)(iv) to apply, a plan must specify the manner in which the permitted average interest rate is computed.
(v) Additional determination dates. The Commissioner may prescribe, in revenue rulings, notices or other guidance published in the Internal Revenue Bulletin (see Sec. 601.601(d)(2)(ii)(b)), other times that a plan may provide for determining the applicable interest rate.
(vi) Example. This example illustrates the rules of this paragraph (d)(4):
Example. Employer X maintains Plan A, a calendar year plan. Employer X wishes to amend Plan A so that the applicable interest rate will remain fixed for each plan quarter, and so that the applicable interest rate for distributions made during each plan quarter can be determined approximately 80 days before the beginning of the plan quarter. To comply with the provisions of this paragraph (d)(4), Plan A is amended to provide that the applicable interest rate is the annual interest rate on 30-year Treasury securities as specified by the Commissioner for the fourth calendar month preceding the first day of the plan quarter during which the annuity starting date occurs.
(5) Use of alternative interest rate and mortality table. If a plan provides for use of an interest rate or mortality table other than the applicable interest rate or the applicable mortality table, the plan must provide that a participant's benefit must be at least as great as the benefit produced by using the applicable interest rate and the applicable mortality table. For example, if a plan provides for use of an interest rate of 7% and the UP-1984 Mortality Table (see Sec. 1.401(a)(4)-12, Standard mortality table) in calculating single-sum distributions, the plan must provide that any single-sum distribution is calculated as the greater of the single-sum benefit calculated using 7% and the UP-1984 Mortality Table and the single-sum benefit calculated using the applicable interest rate and the applicable mortality table.
(6) Exceptions. This paragraph (d) (other than the provisions relating to section 411(d)(6) requirements in paragraph (d)(10) of this section) does not apply to the amount of a distribution paid in the form of an annual benefit that--
(i) Does not decrease during the life of the participant, or, in the case of a QPSA, the life of the participant's spouse; or
(ii) Decreases during the life of the participant merely because of--
(A) The death of the survivor annuitant (but only if the reduction is to a level not below 50% of the annual benefit payable before the death of the survivor annuitant); or
(B) The cessation or reduction of Social Security supplements or qualified disability benefits (as defined in section 411(a)(9)).
(7) Defined contribution plans. Because the accrued benefit under a defined contribution plan equals the account balance, a defined contribution plan is not subject to the requirements of this paragraph (d), even though it is subject to section 401(a)(11).
(8) Effective date--(i) In general. This paragraph (d) is effective for distributions with annuity starting dates in plan years beginning after December 31, 1994.
(i) In general. This paragraph (d) is effective for distributions with annuity starting dates in plan years beginning after December 31, 1994.
(ii) Optional delayed effective date of Retirement Protection Act of 1994 (RPA '94)(108 Stat. 5012) rules for plans adopted and in effect before December 8, 1994. For a plan adopted and in effect before December 8, 1994, the application of the rules relating to the applicable mortality table and applicable interest rate under paragraphs (d)(2) through (4) of this section is delayed to the extent provided in this paragraph (d)(8)(ii), if the plan provisions in effect on December 7, 1994, met the requirements of section 417(e)(3) and Sec. 1.417(e)-1(d) as in effect on December 7, 1994 (as contained in 26 CFR part 1 revised April 1, 1995). In the case of a distribution from such a plan with an annuity starting date that precedes the optional delayed effective date described in paragraph (d)(8)(iv) of this section, and that precedes the first day of the first plan year beginning after December 31, 1999, the rules of paragraph (d)(9) of this section (which generally apply to distributions with annuity starting dates in plan years beginning before January 1, 1995) apply in lieu of the rules of paragraphs (d)(2) through (4) of this section. The interest rate under the rules of paragraph (d)(9) of this section is determined under the provisions of the plan as in effect on December 7, 1994, reflecting the interest rate or rates published by the Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation (PBGC) and the provisions of the plan for determining the date on which the interest rate is fixed. The above described interest rate or rates published by the PBGC are those determined by the PBGC (for the date determined under those plan provisions) pursuant to the methodology under the regulations of the PBGC for determining the present value of a lump sum distribution on plan termination under 29 CFR part 2619 that were in effect on September 1, 1993 (as contained in 29 CFR part 2619 revised July 1, 1994).
(iii) Optional accelerated effective date of RPA '94 rules. This paragraph (d) is also effective for a distribution with an annuity starting date after December 7, 1994, during a plan year beginning before January 1, 1995, if the employer elects, on or before the annuity starting date, to make the rules of this paragraph (d) effective with respect to the plan as of the optional accelerated effective date described in paragraph (d)(8)(iv) of this section. An employer is treated as making this election by making the plan amendments described in paragraph (d)(8)(iv) of this section.
(iv) Determination of delayed or accelerated effective date by plan amendment adopting RPA '94 rules. The optional delayed effective date of paragraph (d)(8)(ii) of this section, or the optional accelerated effective date of paragraph (d)(8)(iii) of this section, whichever is applicable, is the date plan amendments applying both the applicable mortality table of paragraph (d)(2) of this section and the applicable interest rate of paragraph (d)(3) of this section are adopted or, if later, are made effective.
(9) Plan years beginning before January 1, 1995--(i) Interest rate. (A) For distributions made in plan years beginning after December 31, 1986, and before January 1, 1995, the following interest rate described in paragraph (d)(9)(i)(A)(1) or (2) of this section, whichever applies, is substituted for the applicable interest rate for purposes of this section--
(i) Interest rate. (A) For distributions made in plan years beginning after December 31, 1986, and before January 1, 1995, the following interest rate described in paragraph (d)(9)(i)(A)(1) or (2) of this section, whichever applies, is substituted for the applicable interest rate for purposes of this section--
(1) The rate or rates that would be used by the PBGC for a trusteed single-employer plan to value the participant's (or beneficiary's) vested benefit (PBGC interest rate) if the present value of such benefit does not exceed $25,000; or
(2) 120 percent of the PBGC interest rate, as determined in accordance with paragraph (d)(9)(i)(A)(1) of this section, if such present value exceeds $25,000. In no event shall the present value determined by use of 120 percent of the PBGC interest rate result in a present value less than $25,000.
(B) The PBGC interest rate may be a series of interest rates for any given date. For example, the PBGC interest rate for immediate annuities for November 1994 is 6%, and the PBGC interest rates for the deferral period for that month are as follows: 5.25% for the first 7 years of the deferral period, 4% for the following 8 years of the deferral period, and 4% for the remainder of the deferral period. For November 1994, 120 percent of the PBGC interest rate is 7.2% (1.2 times 6%) for an immediate annuity, 6.3% (1.2 times 5.25%) for the first 7 years of the deferral period, 4.8% (1.2 times 4%) for the following 8 years of the deferral period, and 4.8% (1.2 times 4%) for the remainder of the deferral period. The PBGC interest rates are the interest rates that would be used (as of the date of the distribution) by the PBGC for purposes of determining the present value of that benefit upon termination of an insufficient trusteed single employer plan. Except as otherwise provided by the Commissioner, the PBGC interest rates are determined by PBGC regulations. See subpart B of 29 CFR part 4044 for the applicable PBGC rates.
(ii) Time for determining interest rate. (A) Except as provided in paragraph (d)(9)(ii)(B) of this section, the PBGC interest rate or rates are determined on either the annuity starting date or the first day of the plan year that contains the annuity starting date. The plan must provide which date is applicable.
(A) Except as provided in paragraph (d)(9)(ii)(B) of this section, the PBGC interest rate or rates are determined on either the annuity starting date or the first day of the plan year that contains the annuity starting date. The plan must provide which date is applicable.
(B) The plan may provide for the use of any other time for determining the PBGC interest rate or rates provided that such time is not more than 120 days before the annuity starting date if such time is determined in a consistent manner and is applied uniformly to all participants.
(C) The Commissioner may, in revenue rulings, notices or other guidance published in the Internal Revenue Bulletin (see Sec. 601.601(d)(2)(ii)(b), prescribe other times for determining the PBGC interest rate or rates.
(iii) No applicable mortality table. In the case of a distribution to which this paragraph (d)(9) applies, the rules of this paragraph (d) are applied without regard to the applicable mortality table described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
(10) Relationship with section 411(d)(6)--(i) In general. A plan amendment that changes the interest rate, the time for determining the interest rate, or the mortality assumptions used for the purposes described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section is subject to section 411(d)(6). But see Sec. 1.411(d)-4, Q&A-2;(b)(2)(v) (regarding plan amendments relating to involuntary distributions). In addition, a plan amendment that changes the interest rate or the mortality assumptions used for the purposes described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section merely to eliminate use of the interest rate described in paragraph (d)(3) or paragraph (d)(9) of this section, or the applicable mortality table, with respect to a distribution form described in paragraph (d)(6) of this section, for distributions with annuity starting dates occurring after a specified date that is after the amendment is adopted, does not violate the requirements of section 411(d)(6) if the amendment is adopted on or before the last day of the last plan year ending before January 1, 2000.
(i) In general. A plan amendment that changes the interest rate, the time for determining the interest rate, or the mortality assumptions used for the purposes described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section is subject to section 411(d)(6). But see Sec. 1.411(d)-4, Q&A-2;(b)(2)(v) (regarding plan amendments relating to involuntary distributions). In addition, a plan amendment that changes the interest rate or the mortality assumptions used for the purposes described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section merely to eliminate use of the interest rate described in paragraph (d)(3) or paragraph (d)(9) of this section, or the applicable mortality table, with respect to a distribution form described in paragraph (d)(6) of this section, for distributions with annuity starting dates occurring after a specified date that is after the amendment is adopted, does not violate the requirements of section 411(d)(6) if the amendment is adopted on or before the last day of the last plan year ending before January 1, 2000.
(ii) Section 411(d)(6) relief for change in time for determining interest rate. Notwithstanding the general rule of paragraph (d)(10)(i) of this section, if a plan amendment changes the time for determining the applicable interest rate (including an indirect change as a result of a change in plan year), the amendment will not be treated as reducing accrued benefits in violation of section 411(d)(6) merely on account of this change if the conditions of this paragraph (d)(10)(ii) are satisfied. If the plan amendment is effective on or after the adoption date, any distribution for which the annuity starting date occurs in the one-year period commencing at the time the amendment is effective must be determined using the interest rate provided under the plan determined at either the date for determining the interest rate before the amendment or the date for determining the interest rate after the amendment, whichever results in the larger distribution. If the plan amendment is adopted retroactively (that is, the amendment is effective prior to the adoption date), the plan must use the interest rate determination date resulting in the larger distribution for the period beginning with the effective date and ending one year after the adoption date.
(iii) Section 411(d)(6) relief for plan amendments pursuant to changes to section 417 made by RPA '94 providing for statutory interest rate determination date. Notwithstanding the general rule of paragraph (d)(10)(i) of this section, except as provided in paragraph (d)(10)(vi)(B) of this section, a participant's accrued benefit is not considered to be reduced in violation of section 411(d)(6) merely because of a plan amendment that changes any interest rate or mortality assumption used to calculate the present value of a participant's benefit under the plan, if the following conditions are satisfied--
(A) The amendment replaces the PBGC interest rate (or an interest rate or rates based on the PBGC interest rate) as the interest rate used under the plan in determining the present value of a participant's benefit under this paragraph (d); and
(B) After the amendment is effective, the present value of a participant's benefit under the plan cannot be less than the amount calculated using the applicable mortality table and the applicable interest rate for the first full calendar month preceding the calendar month that contains the annuity starting date.
(iv) Section 411(d)(6) relief for plan amendments pursuant to changes to section 417 made by RPA '94 providing for prior determination date or up to two months earlier. Notwithstanding the general rule of paragraph (d)(10)(i) of this section, except as provided in paragraph (d)(10)(vi)(B) of this section, a participant's accrued benefit is not considered to be reduced in violation of section 411(d)(6) merely because of a plan amendment that changes any interest rate or mortality assumption used to calculate the present value of a participant's benefit under the plan, if the following conditions are satisfied--
(A) The amendment replaces the PBGC interest rate (or an interest rate or rates based on the PBGC interest rate) as the interest rate used under the plan in determining the present value of a participant's benefit under this paragraph (d); and
(B) After the amendment is effective, the present value of a participant's benefit under the plan cannot be less than the amount calculated using the applicable mortality table and the applicable interest rate, but only if the applicable interest rate is the annual interest rate on 30-year Treasury securities for the calendar month that contains the date as of which the PBGC interest rate (or an interest rate or rates based on the PBGC interest rate) was determined immediately before the amendment, or for one of the two calendar months immediately preceding such month.
(v) Section 411(d)(6) relief for plan amendments pursuant to changes to section 417 made by RPA '94 providing for other interest rate determination date. Notwithstanding the general rule of paragraph (d)(10)(i) of this section, except as provided in paragraph (d)(10)(vi)(B) of this section, a participant's accrued benefit is not considered to be reduced in violation of section 411(d)(6) merely because of a plan amendment that changes any interest rate or mortality assumption used to calculate the present value of a participant's benefit under the plan, if the following conditions are satisfied--
(A) The amendment replaces the PBGC interest rate (or an interest rate or rates based on the PBGC interest rate) as the interest rate used under the plan in determining the present value of a participant's benefit under this paragraph (d);
(B) After the amendment is effective, the present value of a participant's benefit under the plan cannot be less than the amount calculated using the applicable mortality table and the applicable interest rate; and
(C) The plan amendment satisfies either the condition of paragraph (d)(10)(ii) of this section (determined using the interest rate provided under the terms of the plan after the effective date of the amendment) or the special early transition interest rate rule of paragraph (d)(10)(vi)(C) of this section.
(vi) Special rules--(A) Provision of temporary additional benefits. A plan amendment described in paragraph (d)(10)(iii), (iv), or (v) of this section is not considered to reduce a participant's accrued benefit in violation of section 411(d)(6) even if the plan amendment provides for temporary additional benefits to accommodate a more gradual transition from the plan's old interest rate to the new rules.
(A) Provision of temporary additional benefits. A plan amendment described in paragraph (d)(10)(iii), (iv), or (v) of this section is not considered to reduce a participant's accrued benefit in violation of section 411(d)(6) even if the plan amendment provides for temporary additional benefits to accommodate a more gradual transition from the plan's old interest rate to the new rules.
(B) Replacement of non-PBGC interest rate. The section 411(d)(6) relief provided in paragraphs (d)(10)(iii) through (v) of this section does not apply to a plan amendment that replaces an interest rate other than the PBGC interest rate (or an interest rate or rates based on the PBGC interest rate) as an interest rate used under the plan in determining the present value of a participant's benefit under this paragraph (d). Thus, the accrued benefit determined using that interest rate and the associated mortality table is protected under section 411(d)(6). For purposes of this paragraph (d), an interest rate is based on the PBGC interest rate if the interest rate is defined as a specified percentage of the PBGC interest rate, the PBGC interest rate minus a specified number of basis points, or an average of such interest rates over a specified period.
(C) Special early transition interest rate rule for paragraph (d)(10)(v). A plan amendment satisfies the special rule of this paragraph (d)(10)(vi)(C) if any distribution for which the annuity starting date occurs in the one-year period commencing at the time the plan amendment is effective is determined using whichever of the following two interest rates results in the larger distribution--
(1) The interest rate as provided under the terms of the plan after the effective date of the amendment, but determined at a date that is either one month or two months (as specified in the plan) before the date for determining the interest rate used under the terms of the plan before the amendment; or
(2) The interest rate as provided under the terms of the plan after the effective date of the amendment, determined at the date for determining the interest rate after the amendment.
(vii) Examples. The provisions of this paragraph (d)(10) are illustrated by the following examples:
Example 1. On December 31, 1994, Plan A provided that all single-sum distributions were to be calculated using the UP-1984 Mortality Table and 100% of the PBGC interest rate for the date of distribution. On January 4, 1995, and effective on February 1, 1995, Plan A was amended to provide that all single-sum distributions are calculated using the applicable mortality table and the annual interest rate on 30-year Treasury securities for the first full calendar month preceding the calendar month that contains the annuity starting date. Pursuant to paragraph (d)(10)(iii) of this section, this amendment of Plan A is not considered to reduce the accrued benefit of any participant in violation of section 411(d)(6).
Example 2. On December 31, 1994, Plan B provided that all single-sum distributions were to be calculated using the UP-1984 Mortality Table and an interest rate equal to the lesser of 100% of the PBGC interest rate for the date of distribution, or 6%. On January 4, 1995, and effective on February 1, 1995, Plan B was amended to provide that all single-sum distributions are calculated using the applicable mortality table and the annual interest rate on 30-year Treasury securities for the second full calendar month preceding the calendar month that contains the annuity starting date. Pursuant to paragraph (d)(10)(iv) of this section, this amendment of Plan B is not considered to reduce the accrued benefit of any participant in violation of section 411(d)(6) merely because of the replacement of the PBGC interest rate. However, under paragraph (d)(10)(vi)(B) of this section, the section 411(d)(6) relief provided in paragraphs (d)(10)(iii) through (v) of this section does not apply to a plan amendment that replaces an interest rate other than the PBGC interest rate (or a rate based on the PBGC interest rate). Therefore, pursuant to paragraph (d)(10)(vi)(B) of this section, to satisfy the requirements of section 411(d)(6), the plan must provide that the single-sum distribution payable to any participant must be no less than the single-sum distribution calculated using the UP-1984 Mortality Table and an interest rate of 6%, based on the participant's benefits under the plan accrued through January 31, 1995, and based on the participant's age at the annuity starting date.
Example 3. On December 31, 1994, Plan C, a calendar year plan, provided that all single sum distributions were to be calculated using the UP-1984 Mortality Table and an interest rate equal to the PBGC interest rate for January 1 of the plan year. On March 1, 1995, and effective on July 1, 1995, Plan C was amended to provide that all single-sum distributions are calculated using the applicable mortality table and the annual interest rate on 30-year Treasury securities for August of the year before the plan year that contains the annuity starting date. The plan amendment provides that each distribution with an annuity starting date after June 30, 1995, and before July 1, 1996, is calculated using the 30-year Treasury rate for August of the year before the plan year that contains the annuity starting date, or the 30-year Treasury rate for January of the plan year that contains the annuity starting date, whichever produces the larger benefit. Pursuant to paragraph (d)(10)(v) of this section, the amendment of Plan C is not considered to have reduced the accrued benefit of any participant in violation of section 411(d)(6).
(a) Employer X maintains Plan D, a calendar year plan. As of December 7, 1994, Plan D provided for single-sum distributions to be calculated using the PBGC interest rate as of the annuity starting date for distributions not greater than $25,000, and 120% of that interest rate (but not an interest rate producing a present value less than $25,000) for distributions over $25,000. Employer X wishes to delay the effective date of the RPA '94 rules for a year, and to provide for an extended transition from the use of the PBGC interest rate to the new applicable interest rate under section 417(e)(3). On December 1, 1995, and effective on January 1, 1996, Employer X amends Plan D to provide that single-sum distributions are determined as the sum of--
(i) The single-sum distribution calculated based on the applicable mortality table and the annual interest rate on 30-year Treasury securities for the first full calendar month preceding the calendar month that contains the annuity starting date; and
(ii) A transition amount.
(b) The amendment provides that the transition amount for distributions in the years 1996-99 is a transition percentage of the excess, if any, of the amount that the single-sum distribution would have been under the plan provisions in effect prior to this amendment over the amount of the single sum described in paragraph (a)(i) of this Example 4. The transition percentages are 80% for 1996, decreasing to 60% for 1997, 40% for 1998 and 20% for 1999. The amendment also provides that the transition amount is zero for plan years beginning on or after the year 2000. Pursuant to paragraphs (d)(10)(iii) and (vi)(A) of this section, the amendment of Plan D is not considered to have reduced the accrued benefit of any participant in violation of section 411(d)(6).
Example 5. On December 31, 1994, Plan E, a calendar year plan, provided that all single-sum distributions were to be calculated using the UP-1984 Mortality Table and an interest rate equal to the PBGC interest rate for January 1 of the plan year. On March 1, 1995, and effective on July 1, 1995, Plan E was amended to provide that all single-sum distributions are calculated using the applicable mortality table and the annual interest rate on 30-year Treasury securities for August of the year before the plan year that contains the annuity starting date. The plan amendment provides that each distribution with an annuity starting date after June 30, 1995, and before July 1, 1996, is calculated using the 30-year Treasury rate for August of the year before the plan year that contains the annuity starting date, or the 30-year Treasury rate for November of the plan year preceding the plan year that contains the annuity starting date, whichever produces the larger benefit. Pursuant to paragraphs (d)(10)(v) and (vi)(C) of this section, the amendment of Plan E is not considered to have reduced the accrued benefit of any participant in violation of section 411(d)(6).
(e) Special rules for annuity contracts--(1) General rule. Any annuity contract purchased by a plan subject to section 401(a)(11) and distributed to or owned by a participant must provide that benefits under the contract are provided in accordance with the applicable consent, present value, and other requirements of sections 401(a)(11) and 417 applicable to the plan.
(1) General rule. Any annuity contract purchased by a plan subject to section 401(a)(11) and distributed to or owned by a participant must provide that benefits under the contract are provided in accordance with the applicable consent, present value, and other requirements of sections 401(a)(11) and 417 applicable to the plan.
(2) [Reserved]
(f) Effective dates--(1) Annuity contracts. (i) Paragraph (e) of this section does not apply to contracts distributed to or owned by a participant prior to September 17, 1985, unless additional contributions are made under the plan by the employer with respect to such contracts.
(1) Annuity contracts. (i) Paragraph (e) of this section does not apply to contracts distributed to or owned by a participant prior to September 17, 1985, unless additional contributions are made under the plan by the employer with respect to such contracts.
(i) Paragraph (e) of this section does not apply to contracts distributed to or owned by a participant prior to September 17, 1985, unless additional contributions are made under the plan by the employer with respect to such contracts.
(ii) In the case of a contract owned by the employer or distributed to or owned by a participant prior to the first plan year beginning after December 31, 1988, paragraph (e) of this section shall be satisfied if the annuity contracts described therein satisfy the requirements in Sec. Sec. 1.401(a)-11T and 1.417(e)-1T. The preceding sentence shall not apply if additional contributions are made under the plan by the employer with respect to such contracts on or after the beginning of the first plan year beginning after December 31, 1988.
(2) Interest rates. (i) A plan that uses the PBGC immediate interest rate as required by Sec. 1.417(e)-1T(e) for distributions commencing in plan years beginning before January 1, 1987, shall be deemed to satisfy paragraph (d) of this section for such years.
(i) A plan that uses the PBGC immediate interest rate as required by Sec. 1.417(e)-1T(e) for distributions commencing in plan years beginning before January 1, 1987, shall be deemed to satisfy paragraph (d) of this section for such years.
(ii) For a special exception to the requirements of section 411(d)(6) for certain plan amendments that incorporate applicable interest rates, see section 1139(d)(2) of the Tax Reform Act of 1986.
(3) Other effective dates and transitional rules. (i) Except as otherwise provided, a plan will be treated as satisfying sections 401(a)(11) and 417 for plan years beginning before the first plan year that the requirements of section 410(b) as amended by TRA 86 apply to such plan, if the plan satisfied the requirements in Sec. Sec. 1.401(a)-11T and 1.417(e)-1T.
(i) Except as otherwise provided, a plan will be treated as satisfying sections 401(a)(11) and 417 for plan years beginning before the first plan year that the requirements of section 410(b) as amended by TRA 86 apply to such plan, if the plan satisfied the requirements in Sec. Sec. 1.401(a)-11T and 1.417(e)-1T.
(ii) See Sec. 1.401(a)-20 for other effective dates and transitional rules that apply to plans subject to sections 401(a)(11) and 417. [T.D. 8219, 53 FR 31854, Aug. 22, 1988; 53 FR 48534, Dec. 1, 1988, as amended by T.D. 8591, 60 FR 17219, Apr. 5, 1995; T.D. 8620, 60 FR 49221, Sept. 22, 1995; T.D. 8768, 63 FR 16898, Apr. 7, 1998; T.D. 8796, 63 FR 70011, Dec. 18, 1998; T.D. 8794, 63 FR 70338, Dec. 21, 1998; T.D. 8891, 65 FR 44681, 44682, July 19, 2000; T.D. 9076, 68 FR 41909, July 16, 2003; T.D. 9099, 68 FR 70149, Dec. 17, 2003] Sec. 1.417(e)-1T Restrictions and valuations of distributions from plans subject to sections 401(a)(11) and 417. (Temporary)
(a) [Reserved]
(b) Consent, etc. requirements--(1) General rule. [Reserved]
(1) General rule. [Reserved]
(2) Consent. [Reserved]
(c) [Reserved]
(d) For rules regarding the present value of a participant's accrued benefit and related matters, see Sec. 1.417(e)-1(d). [T.D. 8591, 60 FR 17219, Apr. 5, 1995, as amended by T.D. 8620, 60 FR 49221, Sept. 22, 1995; T.D. 8768, 63 FR 16902, Apr. 7, 1998; T.D. 8796, 63 FR 70012, Dec. 18, 1998] Sec. 1.419-1T Treatment of welfare benefit funds. (Temporary)
Q-1: What does section 419 of the Internal Revenue Code provide?
A-1: Section 419 prescribes limitations upon deductions for contributions paid or accrued with respect to a welfare benefit fund. Under section 419 (a) and (b), an employer's contributions to a welfare benefit fund are not deductible under section 162 (relating to trade or business expenses) or section 212 (relating to expenses for production of income) but, if the requirements of section 162 or 212 are otherwise met, are deductible under section 419 for the taxable year of the employer in which paid to the extent of the welfare benefit fund's qualified cost (within the meaning of section 419(c)(1)) for the taxable year of the fund that relates to such taxable year of the employer. Under section 419(g), section 419 and this section shall also apply to the deduction by a taxpayer of contributions with respect to a fund that would be a welfare benefit fund but for the fact that there is no employer-employee relationship between the person providing the services and the person for whom the services are provided. Contributions paid to a welfare benefit fund after section 419 becomes effective with respect to such contributions are deemed to relate, first, to amounts accrued and deducted (but not paid) by the employer with respect to such fund before section 419 becomes effective with respect to such contributions and thus shall not be treated as satisfying the payment requirement of section 419. See paragraph (b) of Q&A-5; for special deduction limits applicable to employer contributions to welfare benefit funds with excess reserves.
Q-2: When do the deduction rules of section 419, as enacted by the Tax Reform Act of 1984, become effective?
A-2: (a) Section 419 generally applies to contributions paid or accrued with respect to a welfare benefit fund after December 31, 1985, in taxable years of employers ending after that date. See Q&A-9; of this regulation for special rules relating to the deduction limit for the first taxable year of a fiscal year employer ending after December 31, 1985.
(b) In the case of a welfare benefit fund which is part of a plan maintained pursuant to one or more collective bargaining agreements (1) between employee representatives and one or more employers, and (2) that are in effect on July 1, 1985 (or ratified on or before such date), sections 419 shall not apply to contributions paid or accrued in taxable years beginning before the termination of the last of the collective bargaining agreements pursuant to which the plan is maintained (determined without regard to any extension thereof agreed to after July 1, 1985). For purposes of the preceding sentence, any plan amendment made pursuant to a collective bargaining agreement relating to the plan which amends the plan solely to conform to any requirement added under section 511 of the Tax Reform Act of 1984 (i.e., requirements under sections 419, 419A, 512(a)(3)(E), and 4976) shall not be treated as a termination of such collective bargaining agreement. See Sec. 1.419A-2T for special rules relating to the application of section 419 to collectively bargained welfare benefit funds.
(c) Notwithstanding paragraphs (a) and (b), section 419 applies to any contribution of a facility to a welfare benefit fund (or other contribution, such as cash, which is used to acquire, construct, or improve such a facility) after June 22, 1984, unless such facility is placed in service by the fund before January 1, 1987, and either (1) is acquired or improved by the fund (or contributed to the fund) pursuant to a binding contract in effect on June 22, 1984, and at all times thereafter, or (2) the construction of which was begun by or for the welfare benefit fund before June 22, 1984. See Q&A-11; of this regulation for special rules relating to the application of section 419 to the contribution of a facility to a welfare benefit fund (and to the contribution of other amounts, such as cash, used to acquire, construct, or improve such a facility) before section 419 generally becomes effective with respect to contributions to the fund.
Q-3. What is a ``welfare benefit fund'' under section 419?
A-3. (a) A ``welfare benefit fund'' is any fund which is part of a plan, or method or arrangement, of an employer and through which the employer provides welfare benefits to employees or their beneficiaries. For purposes of this section, the term ``welfare benefit'' includes any benefit other than a benefit with respect to which the employer's deduction is governed by section 83(h), section 404 (determined without regard to section 404(b)(2)), section 404A, or section 463.
(b) Under section 419(e)(3) (A) and (B), the term ``fund'' includes any organization described in section 501(c) (7), (9), (17) or (20), and any trust, corporation, or other organization not exempt from tax imposed by chapter 1, subtitle A, of the Internal Revenue Code. Thus, a taxable trust or taxable corporation that is maintained for the purpose of providing welfare benefits to an employer's employees is a ``welfare benefit fund.''
(c) Section 419(e)(3)(C) also provides that the term ``fund'' includes, to the extent provided in regulations, any account held for an employer by any person. Pending the issuance of further guidance, only the following accounts, and arrangements that effectively constitute accounts, as described below, are ``funds'' within section 419(e)(3)(C).
A retired lives reserve or a premium stabilization reserve maintained by an insurance company is a ``fund,'' or part of a ``fund,'' if it is maintained for a particular employer and the employer has the right to have any amount in the reserve applied against its future years' benefit costs or insurance premiums. Also, if an employer makes a payment to an insurance company under an ``administrative services only'' arrangement with respect to which the life insurance company maintains a separate account to provide benefits, then the arrangement would be considered to be a ``fund.'' Finally, an insurance or premium arrangement between an employer and an insurance company is a ``fund'' if, under the arrangement, the employer has a right to a refund, credit, or additional benefits (including upon termination of the arrangement) based on the benefit or claims experience, administrative cost experience, or investment experience attributable to such employer. However, an arrangement with an insurance company is not a ``fund'' under the previous sentence merely because the employer's premium for a renewal year reflects the employer's own experience for an earlier year if the arrangement is both cancellable by the insurance company and cancellable by the employer as of the end of any policy year and, upon cancellation by either of the parties, neither of the parties can receive a refund or additional amounts or benefits and neither of the parties can incur a residual liability beyond the end of the policy year (other than, in the case of the insurer, to provide benefits with respect to claims incurred before cancellation). The determination whether either of the parties can receive a refund or additional amounts or benefits or can incur a residual liability upon cancellation of an arrangement will be made by examining both the contractual rights and obligations of the parties under the arrangement and the actual practice of the insurance company (and other insurance companies) with respect to other employers upon cancellation of similar arrangements. Similarly, a disability income policy does not constitute a ``fund'' under the preceding provisions merely because, under the policy, an employer pays an annual premium so that employees who became disabled in such year may receive benefit payments for the duration of the disability.
Q-4: For purposes of determining the section 419 limit on the employer's deduction for contributions to the fund for a taxable year of the employer, which taxable year of the welfare benefit fund is related to the taxable year of the employer?
A-4: The amount of an employer's deduction for contributions to a welfare benefit fund for a taxable year of the employer is limited to the ``qualified cost'' of the welfare benefit fund for the taxable year of the fund that is related to such taxable year of the employer. The taxable year of the welfare benefit fund that ends with or within the taxable year of the employer is the taxable year of the fund that is related to the taxable year of the employer. Thus, for example, if an employer has a calendar taxable year and it makes contributions to a fund having a taxable year ending June 30, the ``qualified cost'' of the fund for the taxable year of the fund ending on June 30, 1986, applies to limit the employer's deduction for contributions to the fund in the employer's 1986 taxable year. In the case of employer contributions paid directly to an account or arrangement with an insurance company that is treated as a welfare benefit fund for the purposes of section 419, the policy year will be treated as the taxable year of the fund. See Q&A-7; of this regulation for special section 419 rules relating to the coordination of taxable years for the taxable year of the employer in which a welfare benefit fund is established and for the next following taxable year of the employer.
Q-5: What is the ``qualified cost'' of a welfare benefit fund for a taxable year under section 419?
A-5: (a) Under section 419(c), the ``qualified cost'' of a welfare benefit fund for a taxable year of the fund is the sum of: (1) The ``qualified direct cost'' of such fund for such taxable year of the fund, and (2) the amount that may be added to the qualified asset account for such taxable year of the fund to the extent that such addition does not result in a total amount of such account as of the end of such taxable year of the fund that exceeds the applicable account limit under section 419A(c). However, in calculating the qualified cost of a welfare benefit fund for a taxable year of the fund, this sum is reduced by the fund's ``after-tax income'' (as defined in section 419(c)(4)) for such taxable year of the fund. Also, the qualified cost of a welfare benefit fund is reduced further under the provisions of paragraph (b) of this Q&A.;
(b)(1) Pursuant to section 419A(i), notwithstanding section 419 and Sec. 1.419-1T, contributions to a welfare benefit fund during any taxable year of the employer beginning after December 31, 1985, shall not be deductible for such taxable year to the extent that such contributions result in the total amount in the fund as of the end of the last taxable year of the fund ending with or within such taxable year of the employer exceeding the account limit applicable to such taxable year of the fund (as adjusted under section 419A(f)(7)). Solely for purposes of this subparagraph, (i) contributions paid to a welfare benefit fund during the taxable year of the employer but after the end of the last taxable year of the fund that relates to such taxable year of the employer, and (ii) contributions accrued with respect to a welfare benefit fund during the taxable year of the employer or during any prior taxable year of the employer (but not actually paid to such fund on or before the end of a taxable year of the employer) and deducted by the employer for such or any prior taxable year of the employer, shall be treated as an amount in the fund as of the end of the last taxable year of the fund that relates to the taxable year of the employer. Contributions that are not deductible under this subparagraph are in excess of the qualified cost of the welfare benefit fund for the taxable year of the fund that relates to the taxable year of the employer and thus are treated as contributed to the fund on the first day of the employer's next taxable year.
(1) Pursuant to section 419A(i), notwithstanding section 419 and Sec. 1.419-1T, contributions to a welfare benefit fund during any taxable year of the employer beginning after December 31, 1985, shall not be deductible for such taxable year to the extent that such contributions result in the total amount in the fund as of the end of the last taxable year of the fund ending with or within such taxable year of the employer exceeding the account limit applicable to such taxable year of the fund (as adjusted under section 419A(f)(7)). Solely for purposes of this subparagraph, (i) contributions paid to a welfare benefit fund during the taxable year of the employer but after the end of the last taxable year of the fund that relates to such taxable year of the employer, and (ii) contributions accrued with respect to a welfare benefit fund during the taxable year of the employer or during any prior taxable year of the employer (but not actually paid to such fund on or before the end of a taxable year of the employer) and deducted by the employer for such or any prior taxable year of the employer, shall be treated as an amount in the fund as of the end of the last taxable year of the fund that relates to the taxable year of the employer. Contributions that are not deductible under this subparagraph are in excess of the qualified cost of the welfare benefit fund for the taxable year of the fund that relates to the taxable year of the employer and thus are treated as contributed to the fund on the first day of the employer's next taxable year.
(2) Paragraph (b)(1) of this section shall not apply to contributions with respect to a collectively bargained welfare benefit fund within the meaning of Sec. 1.419A-2T. In addition, paragraph (b)(1) of this section shall not apply to any taxable year of an employer beginning after the end of the earlier of the following taxable years: (i) the first taxable year of the employer beginning after December 31, 1985, for which the employer's deduction limit under section 419 (after the application of paragraph (b)(1) of this section) is at least equal to the qualified direct cost of the fund for the taxable year (or years) of the fund that relates to such first taxable year of the employer, or (ii) the first taxable year of the employer beginning after December 31, 1985, with or within which ends the first taxable year of the fund with respect to which the total amount in the fund as of the end of such taxable year of the fund does not exceed the account limit for such taxable year of the fund (as adjusted under section 419A(f)(7)).
(3) For example, assume an employer with a taxable year ending June 30 and a welfare benefit fund with a taxable year ending January 31. During its taxable year ending June 30, 1987, and on or before January 31, 1987, the employer contributes $250,000 to the fund, and during the remaining portion of its taxable year ending June 30, 1987, the employer contributes $200,000. The qualified direct cost of the fund for its taxable year ending January 31, 1987, is $500,000, the account limit applicable to such taxable year (after the adjustment under section 419A(f)(7)) is $750,000, and the total amount in the fund as of January 31, 1987, is $800,000. Before the application of this paragraph, the employer may deduct the entire $450,000 contribution for its taxable year ending June 30, 1987. However, under this paragraph, the excess of (i) the sum of the total amount in the fund as of January 31, 1987 ($800,000), and employer contributions to the fund after January 31, 1987, and on or before June 30, 1987 ($200,000), over (ii) the account limit applicable to the fund for its taxable year ending January 31, 1987 ($750,000), is $250,000. Thus, under this paragraph, only $200,000 of the $450,000 contribution the employer made during its taxable year ending June 30, 1987, is deductible for such taxable year. If the excess were $450,000 or greater, no portion of the $450,000 contribution would be deductible by the employer for its taxable year ending June 30, 1987. Such nondeductible contributions are in excess of the fund's qualified cost for the taxable year related to the employer's taxable year and thus are deemed to be contributed on the first day of the employer's next taxable year.
(c) See Q&A-7; of this regulation for special rules relating to the calculation of the qualified cost of a welfare benefit fund for an Initial Fund Year and an Overlap Fund Year (as defined in Q&A-7;). See Q&A-11; of this regulation for special rules relating to the application of section 419 to the contribution to a welfare benefit fund of a facility (and to the contribution of other amounts, such as cash, used to acquire, construct, or improve a facility) before section 419 generally becomes effective with respect to contributions to the fund. See Sec. 1.419A-2T for special rules relating to certain collectively bargained welfare benefit funds.
Q-6: What is the ``qualified direct cost'' of a welfare benefit fund under section 419(c)(3)?
A-6: (a) Under section 419(c)(3), the ``qualified direct cost'' of a welfare benefit fund for any taxable year of the fund is the aggregate amount which would have been allowable as a deduction to the employer for benefits provided by such fund during such year (including insurance coverage for such year) if (1) such benefits were provided directly by the employer and (2) the employer used the cash receipts and disbursements method of accounting and had the same taxable year as the fund. In this regard, a benefit is treated as provided when such benefit would be includible in the gross income of the employee if provided directly by the employer (or would be so includible but for a provision of chapter 1, subtitle A, of the Internal Revenue Code excluding it from gross income). Thus, for example, if a calendar year welfare benefit fund pays an insurance company in July 1986 the full premium for coverage of its current employees under a term health insurance policy for the twelve month period ending June 30, 1987, the insurance coverage will be treated as provided by the fund over such twelve month period. Accordingly, only the portion of the premium for coverage during 1986 will be treated as a ``qualified direct cost'' of the fund for 1986; the remaining portion of the premium will be treated as a ``qualified direct cost'' of the fund for 1987. The ``qualified direct cost'' for a taxable year of the fund includes the administrative expenses incurred by the welfare benefit fund in delivering the benefits for such year.
(b) If, in a taxable year of a welfare benefit fund, the fund holds an asset with a useful life extending substantially beyond the end of the taxable year (e.g., buildings, vehicles, tangible assets, and licenses) and, for such taxable year of the fund, the asset is used in the provision of welfare benefits to employees, the ``qualified direct cost'' of the fund for such taxable year of the fund includes the amount that would have been allowable to the employer as a deduction under the applicable Code provisions (e.g., sections 168 and 179) with respect to the portion of the asset used in the provision of welfare benefits for such year if the employer had acquired and placed in service the asset at the same time the fund received and placed in service the asset, and the employer had the same taxable year as the fund. This rule applies regardless of whether the fund received the asset through a contribution of the asset by the employer or through an acquisition or the construction by the fund of the asset. For example, assume that in 1986 a calendar year employer contributes recovery property under section 168(c) to a welfare benefit fund with a calendar taxable year to be used in the provision of welfare benefits. The employer will be treated as having sold the property in such year and thus will recognize gain to the extent that the fair market value of the property exceeds the employer's adjusted basis in the property. In this regard, see section 1239(d). Also, the employer will be treated as having made a contribution to the fund in such year equal to the fair market value of the property. Finally, the qualified direct cost of the welfare benefit fund for 1986 will include the amount that the employer could have deducted in 1986 with respect to the portion of the property used in the provision of welfare benefits if the employer had acquired the property in 1986 and had placed the property in service when the fund actually placed the property in service. Similarly, for example, assume that in 1986 a welfare bendfit fund purchases and places in service a facility to be used in the provision of welfare benefits. The qualified direct cost of the fund for 1986 will include the amount that the employer could have deducted with respect to such facility if the employer had purchased and placed in service the facility at the same time that the fund purchased and placed in service the facility.
(c) The qualified direct cost of a welfare benefit fund does not include expenditures by the fund that would not have been deductible if they had been made directly by the employer. For example, a fund's purchase of land in a year for an employee recreational facility will not be treated as a qualified direct cost because, if made directly by the employer, the purchase would not have been deductible under section 263. See also sections 264 and 274.
(d) Notwithstanding the preceding paragraphs, the qualified direct cost of a welfare benefit fund with respect to that portion of a child care facility used in the provision of welfare benefits for a year will include the amount that would have been allowable to the employer as a deduction for the year under a straight-line depreciation schedule for a period of 60 months beginning with the month in which the facility is placed in service under rules similar to those provided for section 188 property under Sec. 1.188-1(a). For purposes of this section, a ``child care facility'' is tangible property of a character subject to depreciation that is located in the United States and specifically used as an integral part of a ``qualified child care center facility'' within the meaning of Sec. 1.188-1(d)(4).
(e) See Q&A-7; of this regulation for special section 419 rules relating to the calculation of the qualified direct cost of a welfare benefit fund for an Initial Fund Year and an Overlap Fund Year (as defined in Q&A-7;). See Q&A-11; of this regulation for special rules relating to the contribution to a welfare benefit fund of a facility (and to the contribution of other amounts, such as cash, used to acquire, construct, or improve a facility) before section 419 generally becomes effective with respect to contributions to the fund.
Q-7: What special rules apply for purposes of determining the section 419 limit on the employer's deduction for contributions to a welfare benefit fund for the taxable year of the employer in which the fund is established and for the next following taxable year of the employer?
A-7: (a) If the taxable year of a welfare benefit fund is the same as the taxable year of the employer, there are no special rules that apply for purposes of determining the section 419 limit on an employer's deduction for contributions to the fund for either the taxable year of the employer in which the fund is established or the next following taxable year of the employer. However, if the taxable year of a welfare benefit fund is different from the taxable year of the employer, the general section 419 rules are modified by the special rules set forth below for purposes of determining the section 419 deduction limit for the taxable year of the employer in which a fund is established and for the next following taxable year of the employer.
(b) If a welfare benefit fund is established after December 31, 1985, during a taxable year of an employer and either (i) the first taxable year of the fund ends after the close of such taxable year of the employer, or (ii) the first taxable year of the fund is six months or less and ends before the close of such taxable year of the employer and the second taxable year of the fund begins before and ends after the close of such taxable year of the employer, the taxable year of the fund that contains the closing day of such taxable year of the employer will be treated as an ``Overlap Fund Year.'' For purposes of determining the limit on the employer's deduction for contributions to a welfare benefit fund for the taxable year of the employer in which the fund was established, the period between the beginning of the fund's Overlap Fund Year and the end of the employer's taxable year in which the Overlap Fund Year began will be treated as a taxable year of the fund (``Initial Fund Year'').
(c) The qualified cost of a welfare benefit fund for its Initial Fund Year will be equal to the qualified direct cost of the fund for such Initial Fund Year. The qualified cost of a fund for its Overlap Fund Year will be determined under the general rules of Q&A-5; of this regulation and section 419(c), with the exception that such qualfied cost will be reduced by the employer contributions made during the Initial Fund Year and deductible by the employer for the taxable year of the employer in which the Overlap Fund Year of the fund begins.
(d) Assume that an employer with a calendar taxable year establishes on July 1, 1986, a welfare benefit fund with a taxable year ending on June 30. The fund's first taxable year from July 1, 1986, to June 30, 1987, is an Overlap Fund Year. The employer contributes $1,000 to the fund during its taxable year ending December 31, 1986 (i.e., during the period between July 1, 1986, and December 31, 1986, which is also the Initial Fund Year) and another $1,500 to the fund during its taxable year ending December 31, 1987. Assume further that the qualified direct cost of the fund for the Initial Fund Year is $900 and that the qualified cost for the Overlap Fund Year is $2,500 (prior to the reduction required by paragraph (c) of this Q&A;). Under the special rules of paragraphs (b) and (c), the employer may deduct $900 for its taxable year ending on December 31, 1986, and $1,600 for its taxable year ending on December 31, 1987. If the qualified direct cost of the fund for the Initial Fund Year had been $1,050 and the qualified cost for the Overlap Fund Year had been $2,500 (prior to the reduction required by paragraph (c) of this Q&A;), the employer's deduction for its taxable year ending December 31, 1986, would have been $1,000 and its deduction for its taxable year ending December 31, 1987, would have been $1,500.
(e) Assume that an employer with a calendar taxable year establishes on March 1, 1986, a welfare benefit fund with a taxable year ending June 30. Thus, the fund has a short first taxable year ending June 30, 1986, an Overlap Fund Year from July 1, 1986, until June 30, 1987, and an ongoing June 30 taxable year. The employer contributes $1,750 to the fund during the employer's taxable year ending December 31, 1986--$750 during the short first taxable year of the fund and $1,000 during the Initial Fund Year (i.e., the period between July 1, 1986, and December 31, 1986)--and $1,500 to the fund during its taxable year ending December 31, 1987. Assume that the qualified cost of the fund for the short first taxable year of the fund is $800, the qualified direct cost for the Initial Fund Year is $900, and the qualified cost for the Overlap Fund Year is $2,500 (prior to the reduction required by paragraph (c) of this Q&A;). Under the special rules of paragraphs (b) and (c), the employer may deduct $1,700 for its taxable year ending December 31, 1986, and $1,550 for its taxable year ending December 31, 1987.
Q-8: How does section 419 treat an employer's contribution with respect to a welfare benefit fund in excess of the applicable deduction limit for a taxable year of the employer?
A-8: (a) If an employer makes contributions to a welfare benefit fund in a taxable year of the employer and such contributions (when combined with prior contributions that are deemed under the rule of this Q&A; and section 419(d) to have been made in such taxable year) exceed the section 419 deduction limit for such taxable year of the employer, the excess amounts are deemed to be contributed to the fund on the first day of the next taxable year of the employer. Such deemed contributions are combined with amounts actually contributed by the employer to the fund during the next taxable year and may be deductible for such year, subject to the otherwise applicable section 419 deduction limit for such year.
(b) Contributions to a welfare benefit fund on or before December 31, 1985, that were not deductible by the employer for any taxable year of the employer ending on or before December 31, 1985, or for the first taxable year of the employer ending after December 31, 1985, as pre-1986 contributions (see Q&A-9; of this regulation) are deemed to be contributed to the fund on January 1, 1986, However, see Q&A-11; of this regulation for special rules relating to the contribution to a welfare benefit fund of amounts (such as cash) used to acquire, construct, or improve a facility before section 419 generally becomes effective with respect to contributions to the fund. Generally, such contributions (to the extent that they were made after June 22, 1984 and on or before December 31, 1985) are treated as nondeductible pre-1986 contributions and are deemed to be contributed in the form of a facility at the same time as when the facility is placed in service by the fund.
Q-9: How does an employer with a fiscal taxable year calculate its deduction limit for contributions with respect to a welfare benefit fund for the first taxable year of the employer ending after December 31, 1985?
A-9: (a) If the first taxable year of an employer ending after December 31, 1985 (or, if applicable under paragraph (b) of Q&A-2; of this section, the first taxable year of an employer beginning after termination of the last of the collective bargaining agreements pursuant to which the fund is maintained) is a fiscal year, the employer's deduction for such taxable year for contributions to a welfare benefit fund that is not a collectively bargained welfare benefit fund under Sec. 1.419A-2T is limited to the greater of the following two amounts: (1) The contributions paid to the fund during such first taxable year up to the qualified cost of the welfare benefit fund for the taxable year of the fund that relates to such taxable year of the employer, and (2) the contributions paid to the fund during the 1985 portion of such first taxable year of the employer (``the pre-1986 contributions'') to the extent that such pre-1986 contributions are deductible under the rules governing the deduction of such contributions before section 419 generally becomes effective (including the rules set forth in Q&A-10; of this regulation, modified for purposes of this Q&A-9; by substituting ``December 31, 1986'' for ``December 31, 1985'' in paragraph (c)). See Q&A-11; of this regulation for special rules relating to the contribution to a welfare benefit fund of a facility (and to the contribution of other amounts, such as cash, used to acquire, construct, or improve such a facility) before section 419 generally becomes effective with respect to contributions to such fund.
(b) For example, assume that an employer with a taxable year ending June 30, contributes to a welfare benefit fund with a taxable year ending January 31. This employer contributes $1,000 to the fund between July 1, 1985, and December 31, 1985, and an additional $500 to the fund between January 1, 1986, and June 30, 1986. Assume further that the qualified direct cost of the fund for the taxable year of the fund ending January 31, 1986, is $500 and that the qualified cost for such taxable year is $800. Under the deduction rule set forth above, the employer's deduction for its taxable year ending June 30, 1986, is the greater of two amounts: (1) The contributions made during such full taxable year ($1,500) up to the qualifed cost of the fund with respect to such taxable year ($800), and (2) the pre-1986 contributions ($1,000) to the extent that such pre-1986 contributions are deductible under the pre-section 419 rules. In determining the extent to which the pre-1986 contributions are deductible under the pre-section 419 rules, the rules contained in Q&A-10; apply as though December 31, 1985, in paragraph (c) were December 31, 1986. Assuming that only $875 is deductible under the pre-section 419 rules, because $875 is greater than $800, this employer may deduct $875 for its first taxable year ending after December 31, 1985. This full $875 deduction for 1985 is deemed to consist entirely of pre-1986 contributions.
Q-10: How do the rules of sections 263, 446(b), 461(a), and 461(h) apply in determining whether contributions with respect to a welfare benefit fund are deductible for a taxable year?
A-10: (a) Both before and after the effective date of section 419 (see Q&A-2; of this regulation), an employer is allowed a deduction for taxable year for contributions paid or accrued with respect to a ``welfare benefit fund'' (as defined in Q&A-3; of this regulation and section 419(e)) only to the extent that such contributions satisfy the requirements of section 162 or 212. These requirements must be satisfied after the effective date of section 419 because 419 requires that (among other requirements) contributions to a welfare benefit fund satisfy the requirements of section 162 or 212.
(b) Except as provided in paragraphs (c) and (d), in determinig the extent to which contributions paid or accrued with respect to welfare benefit fund satisfy the requirements of section 162 or 212 for a taxable year (both before and after section 419 generally becomes effective with respect to such contributions), the rules of sections 263, 446(b), 461(a) (including the rules that relate to the creation of an asset with a useful life extending substantially beyond the close of the taxable year), and 461(h) (to the extent that such section is effective with respect to such contributions) are are generally applicable.
(c) Notwithstanding paragraph (b), under the authority of section 7805(b), the rules of sections 263, 446(b), and 461(a) shall not be applied in determining the extent to which an employer's contribution with respect to a welfare benefit fund is deductible under section 162 or 212 with respect to any taxable year of the employer ending on or before December 31, 1985, to the extent that, for such taxable year, (1) the contribution was made pursuant to a bona fide collective bargaining agreement requiring fixed and determinable contributions to a collectively bargained welfare benefit fund (as defined in Sec. 1.419A-2T), or (2) the contribution was not in excess of the amount deductible under the principles of Revenue Rulings 69-382, 1969-2 C.B. 28; 69-478, 1969-2 C.B. 29; and 73-599, 1973-2 C.B. 40, modified as appropriate for benefits for active employees.
(d) Notwithstanding paragraph (b), in determining the extent to which contributions paid or accrued with respect to a welfare benefit fund are deductible under section 419, the rules of sections 263, 446(b), and 461(a) will be treated as having been satisfied to the extent that such contributions satisfy the otherwise applicable rules of section 419. Thus, for example, contributions to a welfare benefit fund will not fail to be deductible under section 419 merely because they create an asset with a useful life extending substantially beyoud the close of the taxable year if such contributions satisfy the otherwise applicable requirements of section 419.
(e) In determining the extent to which contributions with respect to a welfare benefit fund satisfy the requirements of section 461(h) for any taxable year for which section 461(h) is effective, pursuant to the authority under section 461(h)(2), economic performance occurs as contributions to the welfare benefit fund are made. Solely for purposes of section 461(h), in the case of an employer's taxable year ending on or after July 18, 1984, and on or before March 21, 1986, contributions made to the welfare benefit fund after the end of such taxable year and on or before March 21, 1986 shall be deemed to have been made on the last day of such taxable year.
Q-11: What special section 419 rules apply to the payment or accrual with respect to a welfare benefit fund of a facility (and the payment or accrual of other amounts, such as cash, used to acquire, construct, or improve such a facility)?
A-11: (a)(1) In the case of an employer's payment or accrual with respect to a welfare benefit fund after June 22, 1984, and on or before December 31, 1985 (or, if applicable under paragraph (b) of Q&A-2; of this regulation, before section 419 generally becomes effective with respect to contributions to such fund), of a facility, the rules of section 419, Sec. 1.419-1T, and Sec. 1.419A-2T generally apply to determine the extent to which such contribution is deductible by the employer for its taxable year of contribution. For this purpose, however, the facility is to be treated as the only contribution made to the fund and the qualified cost of the fund for the taxable year of the fund in which the facility was contributed is to be equal to the qualified direct cost directly attributable to the facility (as determined under Q&A-6; of this regulation). Also, for this purpose, the welfare benefit fund to which the facility was contributed may not be aggregated with any other fund. For purposes of this Q&A;, ``facility'' means any tangible asset with a useful life extending substantially beyond the end of the taxable year (e.g., vehicles, buildings) and any intangible asset (e.g., licenses) related to a tangible asset, whether or not such asset is used in the provision of welfare benefits. See, however, paragraph (c) of Q&A-2; of this regulation for a binding contract exception.
(2) For example, assume that an employer and a welfare benefit fund each has a calendar taxable year and that, during 1985, the employer contributes to the fund $200,000 in cash and a facility with a fair market value of $100,000. Such facility is used in the provision of welfare benefits under the fund. The employer is treated as having sold the facility in such year and thus will recognize gain to the extent that the fair market value of the facility exceeds the employer's adjusted basis in the facility. In this regard, see section 1239(d). The extent to which the facility contribution is deductible by the employer for its 1985 taxable year is determined as though it were the only contribution made by the employer to the fund during such year and the qualified cost of the fund for the taxable year of the fund in which the contribution was made (i.e., the 1985 taxable year) were equal to the amount that would have been allowable to the employer as a deduction for such year under the applicable Code provisions with respect to the portion of the facility used in the provision of welfare benefits for such year if the employer had placed in service the facility at the time the fund placed in service the facility and if the employer had the same taxable year as the fund. If, under these assumptions, the employer would have been allowed a $10,000 deduction with respect to the facility for the 1985 taxable year, the fund's qualified cost for its 1985 taxable year would be only $10,000. Thus, only $10,000 of the $100,000 facility contribution would be deductible by the employer for its 1985 taxable year (i.e., the taxable year of the employer with or within which the applicable taxable year of the fund ends). However, in determining the extent to which the $200,000 in cash is deductible by the employer for its 1985 taxable year, the $100,000 facility is not to be disregarded. Thus, if under the applicable pre-section 419 rules the employer is allowed for 1985 a total deduction of only $175,000, the employer would be permitted a deduction for 1985 of $175,000 ($10,000 with respect to the facility and $165,000 of the cash contribution). The nondeductible portion of the cash contribution is to be treated as contributed to the fund on the first day of the next taxable year of the employer. If under the applicable pre-section 419 rules the employer were allowed a total deduction of $300,000 for 1985, the employer would be permitted a deduction for 1985 of only $210,000 ($10,000 with respect to the facility and the full $200,000 cash contribution).
(3) For example, assume that an employer has a June 30 taxable year and maintains a welfare benefit fund with a taxable year ending January 31. During the 1985 portion of its taxable year ending June 30, 1986, the employer contributes $50,000 in cash and a facility with a fair market value of $100,000; and during the 1986 portion of such taxable year, the employer contributes another $75,000 in cash to the fund. The facility is used in the provision of welfare benefits under the fund. Under the rules of Q&A-9; of this regulation, the employer's deduction for its June 30, 1986, taxable year is limited to the greater of the following two amounts: (i) The contributions paid to the fund during such taxable year ($225,000) up to the qualified cost of the fund for the taxable year of the fund ending January 31, 1986, and (ii) the contributions paid to the fund during the 1985 portion of the employer's taxable year ending June 30, 1986 (``the pre-1986 contributions'') ($150,000) to the extent that such pre-1986 contributions are deductible under the rules governing the deduction of such contributions before section 419 is generally effective with respect to the fund. For purposes of this rule, the contribution of the facility on or before December 31, 1985, is to be treated as a pre-1986 contribution and the rules of section 419 and this Q&A; are to be treated as rules governing the deduction of such contribution before section 419 generally becomes effective with respect to the fund. Thus, in determining the extent to which the facility is deductible as a pre-1986 contribution under the rules before section 419 generally becomes effective, the facility is treated as the only contribution to the welfare benefit fund and the qualified cost of such fund for the taxable year of the fund in which the facility was contributed is the amount that would have been allowable to the employer as a deduction with respect to the portion of the facility used in the provision of welfare benefits if the employer had placed in service the facility at the same time that the fund placed in service the facility and the employer's taxable year ended on January 31, 1986.
(b)(1) The preceding rules shall also apply for purposes of determining when and the extent to which an employer may deduct contributions or other items and amounts after June 22, 1984 and on or before December 31, 1985 (or, if applicable under paragraph (b) of Q&A-2; of this regulation, before section 419 generally becomes effective with respect to contributions to the fund) that are not facilities (e.g., cash contributions) to a welfare benefit fund that are used by the fund to acquire, construct, or improve a facility. The most recent non-facility contributions made to a welfare benefit fund before the facility in question is placed in service by the fund (up to the fair market value of the facility at such time) are to be treated as used by the fund for the acquisition, construction, or improvement (as the case may be) of such facility. To the extent that contributions before such a facility is placed in service are not at least equal to the value of the facility at such time, contributions after such date (up to the value of the facility at the time it is placed in service) are treated as used for acquisition, construction, or improvement of the facility. Such non-facility contributions, to the extent that they were made after June 22, 1984, and on or before December 31, 1985 (or, if applicable under paragraph (b) of Q&A-2; of this regulation, before section 419 generally becomes effective with respect to contributions to the fund), are not deductible by the employer as non-facility contributions for any year. Instead, the employer is permitted a deduction with respect to such contributions only under the rules of this Q&A; as though the employer had contributed a facility to the fund at the same time that the fund placed in service the facility in question and, at such time, the facility had a fair market value equal to the total of such non-facility contributions.
(1) The preceding rules shall also apply for purposes of determining when and the extent to which an employer may deduct contributions or other items and amounts after June 22, 1984 and on or before December 31, 1985 (or, if applicable under paragraph (b) of Q&A-2; of this regulation, before section 419 generally becomes effective with respect to contributions to the fund) that are not facilities (e.g., cash contributions) to a welfare benefit fund that are used by the fund to acquire, construct, or improve a facility. The most recent non-facility contributions made to a welfare benefit fund before the facility in question is placed in service by the fund (up to the fair market value of the facility at such time) are to be treated as used by the fund for the acquisition, construction, or improvement (as the case may be) of such facility. To the extent that contributions before such a facility is placed in service are not at least equal to the value of the facility at such time, contributions after such date (up to the value of the facility at the time it is placed in service) are treated as used for acquisition, construction, or improvement of the facility. Such non-facility contributions, to the extent that they were made after June 22, 1984, and on or before December 31, 1985 (or, if applicable under paragraph (b) of Q&A-2; of this regulation, before section 419 generally becomes effective with respect to contributions to the fund), are not deductible by the employer as non-facility contributions for any year. Instead, the employer is permitted a deduction with respect to such contributions only under the rules of this Q&A; as though the employer had contributed a facility to the fund at the same time that the fund placed in service the facility in question and, at such time, the facility had a fair market value equal to the total of such non-facility contributions.
(2) For example, assume that an employer and a welfare benefit fund each has a calendar taxable year and during 1985 the fund acquired and placed in service a facility with a fair market value of $100,000 to be used in the provision of welfare benefits. Further, during July 1984 the employer contributed $150,000 in cash to the fund and, during the portion of 1985, before the facility was placed in service by the fund, the employer contributed another $75,000 in cash to the fund; during the remaining portion of 1985, the employer contributed $125,000 in cash. The facility is used in the provision of welfare benefits under the fund. Because $25,000 of the employer's 1984 contribution is treated under this rule as used for the acquisition of a facility, such $25,000 is not deductible by the employer for 1984. For purposes of determining the employer's deduction for 1985, the employer will be treated as having contributed $125,000 in cash and a facility with a fair market value of $100,000. The employer's deduction for its 1985 taxable year will be determined under the rules relating to the contribution of a facility after June 22, 1984, and on or before December 31, 1985.
(3) For example, assume that an employer and a welfare benefit fund each has a calendar taxable year and during 1986 the fund placed in service a facility with a fair market value of $100,000 to be used in the provision of welfare benefits. During 1985, the employer contributed $125,000 in cash to the fund. During the portion of 1986 before the facility was placed in service, the employer contributed $60,000 in cash, and during the remaining portion of 1986, the employer contributed another $75,000 in cash. The facility is used in the provision of welfare benefits under the fund. Because $40,000 of its 1985 cash contribution is treated under this rule as used for the acquisition of the facility, such $40,000 is not deductible by the employer for 1985. For purposes of determining the employer's deduction for 1986, the employer will be treated as though it had contributed a $40,000 facility to the fund at the time the fund placed the facility in service.
(c) For purposes of calculating the ``existing excess reserve amount'' under Q&A-1; of Sec. 1.419A-1T and the ``existing reserves for post-retirement medical or life insurance benefits'' under Q&A-4; of Sec. 1.512(a)-5T (but not the exempt function income under Q&A-3; of Sec. 1.512(a)-5T), the amount set aside as of any applicable date is to be reduced to the extent that contributions originally included in such amount are subsequently treated under this Q&A; as used for the acquisition, construction, or improvement of an asset excluded from the calculation of the total amount set aside under paragraph (b) of Sec. 1.512(a)-5T (or would be so treated under this Q&A; if it applied to such asset). The reduction required under this paragraph applies for purposes of calculating the ``existing excess reserve amount'' and the ``existing reserves for post-retirement medical or life insurance benefits'' for all taxable years of the welfare benefit fund. [T.D. 8073, 51 FR 4323, Feb. 4, 1986; 51 FR 7262, Mar. 3, 1986; 51 FR 11303, Apr. 2, 1986] Sec. 1.419A-1T Qualified asset account limitation of additions to account. (Temporary)
Q-1: What does the transition rule under section 419A(f)(7) provide?
A-1: Section 419A(f)(7) provides that, in the case of a welfare benefit fund that was in existence on July 18, 1984, the account limit (as determined under section 419A(c)) for each of the first four taxable years of the fund that relate to taxable years of the employer ending after December 31, 1985 (or, if applicable under paragraph (b) of Q&A-2; of Sec. 1.419-1T, taxable years of the employer beginning after the termination of the last of the collective bargaining agreements pursuant to which the plan is maintained) shall be increased by the following percentages of the ``existing excess reserve amount'':
Percent
First taxable year............................................ 80Second taxable year........................................... 60Third taxable year............................................ 40Fourth taxable year........................................... 20
For purposes of this section, the ``existing excess reserve amount'' for any taxable year of a fund is the excess of (a) the assets actually set aside for purposes described in section 419A(a) at the close of the first taxable year of the fund ending after July 18, 1984 (calculated in the manner set forth in Q&A-3; of Sec. 1.512(a)-3T, and adjusted under paragraph (c) of Q&A-11; of Sec. 1.419-1T), reduced by employer contributions to the fund before the close of such first taxable year to the extent that such contributions are not deductible for the taxable year of the employer with or within which such taxable year of the fund ends and for any prior taxable year of the employer, over (b) the account limit which would have applied to the taxable year of the fund for which the excess is being computed (without regard to this transition rule). A welfare benefit fund is treated as in existence on July 18, 1984, for purposes of this transition rule only if amounts were actually set aside in such fund on such date to provide welfare benefits enumerated under section 419A. [T.D. 8073, 51 FR 4329, Feb. 4, 1986, as amended at 51 FR 11303, Apr. 2, 1986] Sec. 1.419A-2T Qualified asset account limitation for collectively bargained funds. (Temporary)
Q-1: What account limits apply to welfare benefit funds that are maintained pursuant to a collective bargaining agreement?
A-1: Contributions to a welfare benefit fund maintained pursuant to one or more collective bargaining agreements and the reserves of such a fund generally are subject to the rules of sections 419, 419A, and 512. However, neither contributions to nor reserves of such a collectively bargained welfare benefit fund shall be treated as exceeding the otherwise applicable limits of section 419(b), 419A(b), or 512(a)(3)(E) until the earlier of: (i) The date on which the last of the collective bargaining agreements relating to the fund in effect on, or ratified on or before, the date of issuance of final regulations concerning such limits for collectively bargained welfare benefit funds terminates (determined without regard to any extension thereof agreed to after the date of issuance of such final regulations), or (ii) the date 3 years after the issuance of such final regulations.
Q-2: What is a welfare benefit fund maintained pursuant to a collective bargaining agreement for purposes of Q&A-1;?
A-2: (1) For purposes of Q&A-1;, a collectively bargained welfare benefit fund is a welfare benefit fund that is maintained pursuant to an agreement which the Secretary of Labor determines to be a collective bargaining agreement and which meets the requirements of the Secretary of the Treasury as set forth in paragraph 2 below.
(2) Notwithstanding a determination by the Secretary of Labor that an agreement is a collective bargaining agreement, a welfare benefit fund is considered to be maintained pursuant to a collective bargaining agreement only if the benefits provided through the fund were the subject of arms-length negotiations between employee representatives and one or more employers, and if such agreement between employee representatives and one or more employers satisfies section 7701(a)(46) of the Code. Moreover, the circumstances surrounding a collective bargaining agreement must evidence good faith bargaining between adverse parties over the welfare benefits to be provided through the fund. Finally, a welfare benefit fund is not considered to be maintained pursuant to a collective bargaining agreement unless at least 50 percent of the employees eligible to receive benefits under the fund are covered by the collective bargaining agreement.
(3) In the case of a collectively bargained welfare benefit fund, only the portion of the fund (as determined under allocation rules to be provided by the Commissioner) attributable to employees covered by a collective bargaining agreement, and from which benefits for such employees are provided, is considered to be maintained pursuant to a collective bargaining agreement.
(4) Notwithstanding the preceding paragraphs and pending the issuance of regulations setting account limits for collectively bargained welfare benefit funds, a welfare benefit fund will not be treated as a collectively bargained welfare benefit fund for purposes of Q&A-1; if and when, after July 1, 1985, the number of employees who are not covered by a collective bargaining agreement and are eligible to receive benefits under the fund increases by reason of an amendment, merger, or other action of the employer or the fund. In addition, pending the issuance of such regulations, for purposes of applying the 50 percent test of paragraph (2) to a welfare benefit fund that is not in existence on July 1, 1985, ``90 percent'' shall be substituted for ``50 percent''. [T.D. 8034, 50 FR 27428, July 3, 1985] Sec. 1.419A(f)(6)-1 Exception for 10 or more employer plan.
(a) Requirements--(1) In general. Sections 419 and 419A do not apply in the case of a welfare benefit fund that is part of a 10 or more employer plan described in section 419A(f)(6). A plan is a 10 or more employer plan described in section 419A(f)(6) only if it is a single plan--
(1) In general. Sections 419 and 419A do not apply in the case of a welfare benefit fund that is part of a 10 or more employer plan described in section 419A(f)(6). A plan is a 10 or more employer plan described in section 419A(f)(6) only if it is a single plan--
(i) To which more than one employer contributes;
(ii) To which no employer normally contributes more than 10 percent of the total contributions contributed under the plan by all employers;
(iii) That does not maintain an experience-rating arrangement with respect to any individual employer; and
(iv) That satisfies the requirements of paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
(2) Compliance information. A plan satisfies the requirements of this paragraph (a)(2) if the plan is maintained pursuant to a written document that requires the plan administrator to maintain records sufficient for the Commissioner or any participating employer to readily verify that the plan satisfies the requirements of section 419A(f)(6) and this section and that provides the Commissioner and each participating employer (or a person acting on the participating employer's behalf) with the right, upon written request to the plan administrator, to inspect and copy all such records. See Sec. 1.414(g)-1 for the definition of plan administrator.
(3) Application of rules--(i) In general. The requirements described in paragraph (a)(1) and (2) of this section must be satisfied both in form and in operation.
(i) In general. The requirements described in paragraph (a)(1) and (2) of this section must be satisfied both in form and in operation.
(ii) Arrangement is considered in its entirety. The determination of whether a plan is a 10 or more employer plan described in section 419A(f)(6) is based on the totality of the arrangement and all related facts and circumstances, including any related insurance contracts. Accordingly, all agreements and understandings (including promotional materials and policy illustrations) and the terms of any insurance contract will be taken into account in determining whether the requirements are satisfied in form and in operation.
(b) Experience-rating arrangements--(1) General rule. A plan maintains an experience-rating arrangement with respect to an individual employer and thus does not satisfy the requirement of paragraph (a)(1)(iii) of this section if, with respect to that employer, there is any period for which the relationship of contributions under the plan to the benefits or other amounts payable under the plan (the cost of coverage) is or can be expected to be based, in whole or in part, on the benefits experience or overall experience (or a proxy for either type of experience) of that employer or one or more employees of that employer. For purposes of this paragraph (b)(1), an employer's contributions include all contributions made by or on behalf of the employer or the employer's employees. See paragraph (d) of this section for the definitions of benefits experience, overall experience, and benefits or other amounts payable. The rules of this paragraph (b) apply under all circumstances, including employer withdrawals and plan terminations.
(1) General rule. A plan maintains an experience-rating arrangement with respect to an individual employer and thus does not satisfy the requirement of paragraph (a)(1)(iii) of this section if, with respect to that employer, there is any period for which the relationship of contributions under the plan to the benefits or other amounts payable under the plan (the cost of coverage) is or can be expected to be based, in whole or in part, on the benefits experience or overall experience (or a proxy for either type of experience) of that employer or one or more employees of that employer. For purposes of this paragraph (b)(1), an employer's contributions include all contributions made by or on behalf of the employer or the employer's employees. See paragraph (d) of this section for the definitions of benefits experience, overall experience, and benefits or other amounts payable. The rules of this paragraph (b) apply under all circumstances, including employer withdrawals and plan terminations.
(2) Adjustment of contributions. An example of a plan that maintains an experience-rating arrangement with respect to an individual employer is a plan that entitles an employer to (or for which the employer can expect) a reduction in future contributions if that employer's overall experience is positive. Similarly, a plan maintains an experience-rating arrangement with respect to an individual employer where an employer can expect its future contributions to be increased if the employer's overall experience is negative. A plan also maintains an experience-rating arrangement with respect to an individual employer where an employer is entitled to receive (or can expect to receive) a rebate of all or a portion of its contributions if that employer's overall experience is positive or, conversely, where an employer is liable to make additional contributions if its overall experience is negative.
(3) Adjustment of benefits. An example of a plan that maintains an experience-rating arrangement with respect to an individual employer is a plan under which benefits for an employer's employees are (or can be expected to be) increased if that employer's overall experience is positive or, conversely, under which benefits are (or can be expected to be) decreased if that employer's overall experience is negative. A plan also maintains an experience-rating arrangement with respect to an individual employer if benefits for an employer's employees are limited by reference, directly or indirectly, to the overall experience of the employer (rather than having all the plan assets available to provide the benefits).
(4) Special rules--(i) Treatment of insurance contracts--(A) In general. For purposes of this section, insurance contracts under the arrangement will be treated as assets of the fund. Accordingly, the value of the insurance contracts (including non-guaranteed elements) is included in the value of the fund, and amounts paid between the fund and the insurance company are disregarded, except to the extent they generate gains or losses as described in paragraph (b)(4)(i)(C) of this section.
(i) Treatment of insurance contracts--(A) In general. For purposes of this section, insurance contracts under the arrangement will be treated as assets of the fund. Accordingly, the value of the insurance contracts (including non-guaranteed elements) is included in the value of the fund, and amounts paid between the fund and the insurance company are disregarded, except to the extent they generate gains or losses as described in paragraph (b)(4)(i)(C) of this section.
(A) In general. For purposes of this section, insurance contracts under the arrangement will be treated as assets of the fund. Accordingly, the value of the insurance contracts (including non-guaranteed elements) is included in the value of the fund, and amounts paid between the fund and the insurance company are disregarded, except to the extent they generate gains or losses as described in paragraph (b)(4)(i)(C) of this section.
(B) Payments to and from an insurance company. Payments from a participating employer or its employees to an insurance company pursuant to insurance contracts under the arrangement will be treated as contributions made to the fund, and amounts paid under the arrangement from an insurance company will be treated as payments from the fund.
(C) Gains and losses from insurance contracts. As of any date, if the sum of the benefits paid by the insurer and the value of the insurance contract (including non-guaranteed elements) is greater than the cumulative premiums paid to the insurer, the excess is treated as a gain to the fund. As of any date, if the cumulative premiums paid to the insurer are greater than the sum of the benefits paid by the insurer and the value of the insurance contract (including non-guaranteed elements), the excess is treated as a loss to the fund.
(ii) Treatment of flexible contribution arrangements. Solely for purposes of determining the cost of coverage under a plan, if contributions for any period can vary with respect to a benefit package, the Commissioner may treat the employer as contributing the minimum amount that would maintain the coverage for that period.
(iii) Experience rating by group of employers or group of employees. A plan will not be treated as maintaining an experience-rating arrangement with respect to an individual employer merely because the cost of coverage under the plan with respect to the employer is based, in whole or in part, on the benefits experience or the overall experience (or a proxy for either type of experience) of a rating group, provided that no employer normally contributes more than 10 percent of all contributions with respect to that rating group. For this purpose, a rating group means a group of participating employers that includes the employer or a group of employees covered under the plan that includes one or more employees of the employer.
(iv) Family members, etc. For purposes of this section, contributions with respect to an employee include contributions with respect to any other person (e.g., a family member) who may be covered by reason of the employee's coverage under the plan and amounts provided with respect to an employee include amounts provided with respect to such a person.
(v) Leased employees. In the case of an employer that is the recipient of services performed by a leased employee described in section 414(n)(2) who participates in the plan, the leased employee is treated as an employee of the recipient and contributions made by the leasing organization attributable to service performed with the recipient are treated as made by the recipient.
(c) Characteristics indicating a plan is not a 10 or more employer plan--(1) In general. The presence of any of the characteristics described in paragraphs (c)(2) through (c)(6) of this section generally indicates that the plan is not a 10 or more employer plan described in section 419A(f)(6). Accordingly, unless established to the satisfaction of the Commissioner that the plan satisfies the requirements of section 419A(f)(6) and this section, a plan having any of the following characteristics is not a 10 or more employer plan described in section 419A(f)(6). A plan's lack of all the following characteristics does not create any inference that the plan is a 10 or more employer plan described in section 419A(f)(6).
(1) In general. The presence of any of the characteristics described in paragraphs (c)(2) through (c)(6) of this section generally indicates that the plan is not a 10 or more employer plan described in section 419A(f)(6). Accordingly, unless established to the satisfaction of the Commissioner that the plan satisfies the requirements of section 419A(f)(6) and this section, a plan having any of the following characteristics is not a 10 or more employer plan described in section 419A(f)(6). A plan's lack of all the following characteristics does not create any inference that the plan is a 10 or more employer plan described in section 419A(f)(6).
(2) Allocation of plan assets. Assets of the plan or fund are allocated to a specific employer or employers through separate accounting of contributions and expenditures for individual employers, or otherwise.
(3) Differential pricing. The amount charged under the plan is not the same for all the participating employers, and those differences are not merely reflective of differences in current risk or rating factors that are commonly taken into account in manual rates used by insurers (such as current age, gender, geographic locale, number of covered dependents, and benefit terms) for the particular benefit or benefits being provided.
(4) No fixed welfare benefit package. The plan does not provide for fixed welfare benefits for a fixed coverage period for a fixed cost, within the meaning of paragraph (d)(5) of this section.
(5) Unreasonably high cost. The plan provides for fixed welfare benefits for a fixed coverage period for a fixed cost, but that cost is unreasonably high for the covered risk for the plan as a whole.
(6) Nonstandard benefit triggers. Benefits or other amounts payable can be paid, distributed, transferred, or otherwise provided from a fund that is part of the plan by reason of any event other than the illness, personal injury, or death of an employee or family member, or the employee's involuntary separation from employment. Thus, for example, a plan exhibits this characteristic if the plan provides for the payment of benefits or the distribution of an insurance contract to an employer's employees on the occasion of the employer's withdrawal from the plan. A plan will not be treated as having the characteristic described in this paragraph merely because, upon cessation of participation in the plan, an employee is provided with the right to convert coverage under a group life insurance contract to coverage under an individual life insurance contract without demonstrating evidence of insurability, but only if there is no additional economic value associated with the conversion right.
(d) Definitions. For purposes of this section:
(1) Benefits or other amounts payable. The term benefits or other amounts payable includes all amounts that are payable or distributable (or that will be otherwise provided) directly or indirectly to employers, to employees or their beneficiaries, or to another fund as a result of a spinoff or transfer, and without regard to whether payable or distributable as welfare benefits, cash, dividends, rebates of contributions, property, promises to pay, or otherwise.
(2) Benefits experience. The benefits experience of an employer (or of an employee or a group of employers or employees) means the benefits and other amounts incurred, paid, or distributed (or otherwise provided) directly or indirectly, including to another fund as a result of a spinoff or transfer, with respect to the employer (or employee or group of employers or employees), and without regard to whether provided as welfare benefits, cash, dividends, credits, rebates of contributions, property, promises to pay, or otherwise.
(3) Overall experience--(i) Employer's overall experience. The term overall experience means, with respect to an employer (or group of employers), the balance that would have accumulated in a welfare benefit fund if that employer (or those employers) were the only employer (or employers) providing welfare benefits under the plan. Thus, the overall experience is credited with the sum of the contributions under the plan with respect to that employer (or group of employers), less the benefits and other amounts paid or distributed (or otherwise provided) with respect to that employer (or group of employers) or the employees of that employer (or group of employers), and adjusted for gain or loss from insurance contracts (as described in paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section), investment return, and expenses. Overall experience as of any date may be either a positive or a negative number.
(i) Employer's overall experience. The term overall experience means, with respect to an employer (or group of employers), the balance that would have accumulated in a welfare benefit fund if that employer (or those employers) were the only employer (or employers) providing welfare benefits under the plan. Thus, the overall experience is credited with the sum of the contributions under the plan with respect to that employer (or group of employers), less the benefits and other amounts paid or distributed (or otherwise provided) with respect to that employer (or group of employers) or the employees of that employer (or group of employers), and adjusted for gain or loss from insurance contracts (as described in paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section), investment return, and expenses. Overall experience as of any date may be either a positive or a negative number.
(ii) Employee's overall experience. The term overall experience means, with respect to an employee (or group of employees, whether or not employed by the same employer), the balance that would have accumulated in a welfare benefit fund if the employee (or group of employees) were the only employee (or employees) being provided welfare benefits under the plan. Thus, the overall experience is credited with the sum of the contributions under the plan with respect to that employee (or group of employees), less the benefits and other amounts paid or distributed (or otherwise provided) with respect to that employee (or group of employees), and adjusted for gain or loss from insurance contracts (as described in paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section), investment return, and expenses. Overall experience as of any date may be either a positive or a negative number.
(4) Employer. The term employer means the employer whose employees are participating in the plan and those employers required to be aggregated with the employer under section 414(b), (c), or (m).
(5) Fixed welfare benefit package--(i) In general. A plan provides for fixed welfare benefits for a fixed coverage period for a fixed cost, if it--
(i) In general. A plan provides for fixed welfare benefits for a fixed coverage period for a fixed cost, if it--
(A) Defines one or more welfare benefits, each of which has a fixed amount that does not depend on the amount or type of assets held by the fund;
(B) Specifies fixed contributions to provide for those welfare benefits; and
(C) Specifies a coverage period during which the plan agrees to provide specified welfare benefits, subject to the payment of the specified contributions by the employer.
(ii) Treatment of actuarial gains or losses. A plan will not be treated as failing to provide for fixed welfare benefits for a fixed coverage period for a fixed cost merely because the plan does not pay the promised benefits (or requires all participating employers to make proportionate additional contributions based on the fund's shortfall) when there are insufficient assets under the plan to pay the promised benefits. Similarly, a plan will not be treated as failing to provide for fixed welfare benefits for a fixed coverage period for a fixed cost merely because the plan provides a period of extended coverage after the end of the coverage period with respect to employees of all participating employers at no cost to the employers (or provides a proportionate refund of contributions to all participating employers) because of the plan-wide favorable actuarial experience during the coverage period.
(e) Maintenance of records. The plan administrator of a plan that is intended to be a 10 or more employer plan described in section 419A(f)(6) shall maintain permanent records and other documentary evidence sufficient to substantiate that the plan satisfies the requirements of section 419A(f)(6) and this section. (See Sec. 1.414(g)-1 for the definition of plan administrator.)
(f) Examples. The provisions of paragraph (c) of this section and the provisions of section 419A(f)(6) and this section relating to experience-rating arrangements may be illustrated by the following examples. Unless stated otherwise, it should be assumed that any life insurance contract described in an example is non-participating and has no value other than the value of the policy's current life insurance protection plus its cash value, and that no employer normally contributes more than 10 percent of the total contributions contributed under the plan by all employers. Paragraph (ii) of each example applies the characteristics listed in paragraph (c) of this section to the facts described in that example. Paragraphs (iii) and (iv) of each example analyze the facts described in the example to determine whether the plan maintains experience-rating arrangements with respect to individual employers. Paragraphs (iii) and (iv) of each example illustrate only the meaning of experience-rating arrangements. No inference should be drawn from these examples about whether these plans are otherwise described in section 419A(f)(6) or about the applicability or nonapplicability of any other Internal Revenue Code provision that may limit or deny the deduction of contributions to the arrangements. Further, no inference should be drawn from the examples concerning the tax treatment of employees as a result of the employer contributions or the provision of the benefits. The examples are as follows:
(i) An arrangement provides welfare benefits to employees of participating employers. Each year a participating employer is required to contribute an amount equal to the claims and other expenses expected with respect to that employer for the year (based on current age, gender, geographic locale, number of participating employees, benefit terms, and other risk or rating factors commonly taken into account in manual rates used by insurers for the benefits being provided), multiplied by the ratio of actual claims with respect to that employer for the previous year over the expected claims with respect to that employer for the previous year.
(ii) This arrangement exhibits at least one of the characteristics listed in paragraph (c) of this section generally indicating that an arrangement is not a 10 or more employer plan described in section 419A(f)(6). Differential pricing exists under this arrangement because the amount charged under the plan is not the same for all the participating employers, and those differences are not merely reflective of differences in current risk or rating factors that are commonly taken into account in manual rates used by insurers for the particular benefit or benefits being provided.
(iii) This arrangement does not satisfy the requirements of section 419A(f)(6) and this section because, at a minimum, the requirement of paragraph (a)(1)(iii) of this section is not satisfied. Under the arrangement, an employer's cost of coverage for each year is based, in part, on that employer's benefits experience (i.e., the benefits and other amounts provided in the past with respect to one or more employees of that employer). Accordingly, pursuant to paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the arrangement maintains experience-rating arrangements with respect to individual employers.
(i) The facts are the same as in Example 1, except that the amount charged to an employer each year is equal to claims and other expenses expected with respect to that employer for the year (determined the same as in Example 1), multiplied by the ratio of actual claims for the previous year (determined on a plan-wide basis) over the expected claims for the previous year (determined on a plan-wide basis).
(ii) Based on the limited facts described above, this arrangement exhibits none of the characteristics listed in paragraph (c) of this section generally indicating that an arrangement is not a 10 or more employer plan described in section 419A(f)(6). Unlike the arrangement discussed in Example 1, there is no differential pricing under the arrangement because the only differences in the amounts charged to the employers are solely reflective of differences in current risk or rating factors that are commonly taken into account in manual rates used by insurers for the particular benefit or benefits being provided.
(iii) Nothing in the facts described in this Example 2 indicates that the arrangement maintains experience-rating arrangements prohibited under section 419A(f)(6) and this section. An employer's cost of coverage under the arrangement is based, in part, on the benefits experience of that employer (as well as of all the other participating employers). However, pursuant to paragraph (b)(4)(iii) of this section, the arrangement will not be treated as maintaining experience-rating arrangements with respect to the individual employers merely because the employers' cost of coverage is based on the benefits experience of a group of employees eligible under the plan, provided no employer normally contributes more than 10 percent of all contributions with respect to the rating group that includes the employees of an individual employer. Under the arrangement described in this Example 2, the rating group includes all the participating employers (or all of their employees), and no employer normally contributes more than 10 percent of the contributions made under the arrangement by all the employers. Accordingly, absent other facts, the arrangement will not be treated as maintaining experience-rating arrangements with respect to individual employers.
(i) Arrangement A provides welfare benefits to employees of participating employers. Each year an employer is required to contribute an amount equal to the claims and other expenses expected with respect to that employer for the year (based on current risk or rating factors commonly taken into account in manual rates used by insurers for the benefits being provided), adjusted based on the employer's notional account. An employer's notional account is determined as follows. The account is credited with the sum of the employer's contributions previously paid under the plan less the benefit claims for that employer's employees. The notional account is further increased by a fixed five percent investment return (regardless of the actual investment return earned on the funds). If an employer's notional account is positive, the employer's contributions are reduced by a specified percentage of the notional account. If an employer's notional account is negative, the employer's contributions are increased by a specified percentage of the notional account.
(ii) Arrangement A exhibits at least two of the characteristics listed in paragraph (c) of this section generally indicating that an arrangement is not a 10 or more employer plan described in section 419A(f)(6). First, assets under the plan are allocated to specific employers. Second, differential pricing exists because the amount charged under the plan is not the same for all the participating employers, and those differences are not merely reflective of differences in current risk or rating factors that are commonly taken into account in manual rates used by insurers for the particular benefit or benefits being provided.
(iii) Arrangement A does not satisfy the requirements of section 419A(f)(6) and this section because, at a minimum, the requirement of paragraph (a)(1)(iii) of this section is not satisfied. Under the arrangement, a participating employer's cost of coverage for each year is based on a proxy for that employer's overall experience. An employer's overall experience, as that term is defined in paragraph (d)(3) of this section, includes the balance that would have accumulated in the fund if that employer's employees were the only employees being provided benefits under the plan. Under that definition, the overall experience is credited with the sum of the contributions paid under the plan by or on behalf of that employer less the benefits or other amounts provided to with respect to that employer's employees, and adjusted for gain or loss from insurance contracts, expenses, and investment return. Under the formula used by the arrangement in this example to determine employer contributions, expenses are disregarded and a fixed investment return of five percent is used instead of actual investment return. The disregard of expenses and substitution of the fixed investment return for the actual investment return merely results in an employer's notional account that is a proxy for the overall experience of that employer. Accordingly, the arrangement maintains experience-rating arrangements with respect to individual employers.
(i) Under Arrangement B, death benefits are provided for eligible employees of each participating employer. Individual level premium whole life insurance policies are purchased to provide the death benefits. Each policy has a face amount equal to the death benefit payable with respect to the individual employee. Each year, a participating employer is charged an amount equal to the level premiums payable with respect to the employees of that employer. One participating employer, F, has an employee, P, whose coverage under the arrangement commenced at the beginning of 2000, when P was age 50. P is covered under the arrangement for $1 million of death benefits, and a life insurance policy with a face amount of $1 million has been purchased on P's life. The level annual premium on the policy is $23,000. At the beginning of 2005, when P is age 55, the $23,000 premium amount has been paid for five years and the policy, which continues to have a face amount of $1 million, has a cash value of $92,000. Another employer, G, has an employee, R, who is also 55 years old at the beginning of 2005 and is covered under Arrangement B for $1 million, for which a level premium life insurance policy with a face amount of $1 million has been purchased. However, R did not become covered under Arrangement B until the beginning of 2005. Because R's coverage began at age 55, the level annual premium charged for the policy on R's life is $30,000, or $7,000 more than the premiums payable on the policy in effect on P's life. Employer F is charged $23,000 and employer G is charged $30,000 for the death benefit for employees P and R, respectively. Assume that employees P and R are the only covered employees of their respective employers and that they are identical with respect to current risk and rating factors that are commonly taken into account in manual rates used by insurers for death benefits.
(ii) Arrangement B exhibits at least three of the characteristics listed in paragraph (c) of this section generally indicating that an arrangement is not a 10 or more employer plan described in section 419A(f)(6). First, assets of the plan are effectively allocated to specific employers. Second, there is differential pricing under the arrangement. That is, the amount charged under the plan during the year for a specific amount of death benefit coverage is not the same for all the employers (employer F is charged $23,000 each year for $1 million of death benefit coverage while employer G is charged $30,000 each year for the same coverage), and the difference is not merely reflective of differences in current risk or rating factors that are commonly taken into account in manual rates used by insurers for the death benefit being provided. (The differences in amounts charged are attributable to differences in issue age and not to differences in current risk or rating factors, as employees P and R are the same age). Third, during the early years of the arrangement, the amounts charged are unreasonably high for the covered risk for the plan as a whole.
(iii) Arrangement B does not satisfy the requirements of section 419A(f)(6) and this section because, at a minimum, the requirement of paragraph (a)(1)(iii) of this section is not satisfied. Arrangement B maintains experience-rating arrangements with respect to individual employers because the cost of coverage for each year for any employer participating in the arrangement is based on a proxy for the overall experience of that employer. Under Arrangement B, employer F's cost of coverage for 2005 is $23,000 for $1 million of coverage. The $92,000 cash value at the beginning of 2005 in the policy insuring P's life is a proxy for employer F's overall experience. (The $92,000 is essentially the balance that would have accumulated in the fund if employer F were the only employer providing welfare benefits under Arrangement B.) Further, the $23,000 charged to F for the $1 million of coverage in 2005 is based on the $92,000 since, in the absence of the $92,000, employer F would have been charged $30,000 for P's $1 million death benefit coverage. (Note that the conclusion that the $92,000 balance is the basis for the lower premium charged to employer F is consistent with the fact that a $92,000 balance, if converted to a life annuity using the same actuarial assumptions as were used to calculate the cash value amount, would be sufficient to provide for annual annuity payments of $7,000 for the life of P--an amount equal to the $7,000 difference from the premium charged in 2005 to employer G for the $1 million of coverage on employee R's life.) Thus, F's cost of coverage for 2005 is based on a proxy for F's overall experience. Accordingly, Arrangement B maintains an experience-rating arrangement with respect to employer F.
(iv) Arrangement B also maintains an experience-rating arrangement with respect to employer G because it can be expected that each year G will be charged $30,000 for the $1 million of coverage on R's life. Each year, G's cost of coverage will reflect G's prior contributions and allocable earnings, so that G's cost of coverage will be based on a proxy for G's overall experience. Accordingly, Arrangement B maintains an experience-rating arrangement with respect to employer G. Similarly, Arrangement B maintains an experience-rating arrangement with respect to each other participating employer. Accordingly, Arrangement B maintains experience-rating arrangements with respect to individual employers. This would also be the result if Arrangement B maintained an experience-rating arrangement with respect to only one individual employer.
(i) The facts are the same as in Example 4 except that the death benefits are provided under 10-year level term life insurance policies. One participating employer, H, has an employee, M, whose coverage under the arrangement commenced at the beginning of 2000, when M was age 35. M is covered under the arrangement for $1 million of death benefits, and a 10-year level term life insurance policy with a face amount of $1 million has been purchased on M's life. The level annual premium on the policy for the first 10 years is $700. At the beginning of 2007, when M is age 42, the $700 premium amount has been paid for seven years. Another employer, J, has an employee, N, who is also 42 years old at the beginning of 2007 and is covered under the arrangement for $1 million, for which a 10-year level term life insurance policy with a face amount of $1 million has been purchased. However, N did not become covered under the arrangement until the beginning of 2007. Because N's coverage began at age 42, the 10-year level term premium charged for the policy on N's life is $1,100, or $400 more than the premiums then payable on the policy in effect on M's life. Neither the policy on employee M nor the policy on employee N has any cash value at any point during its term. Assume that employees M and N are the only covered employees of their respective employers and that they are identical with respect to any current risk and rating factors that are commonly taken into account in manual rates used by insurers for the death benefit being provided.
(ii) Based on the facts described in this Example 5, this arrangement exhibits at least two of the characteristics listed in paragraph (c) of this section generally indicating that an arrangement is not a 10 or more employer plan described in section 419A(f)(6). First, for the same reasons as described in paragraph (ii) of Example 4, there is differential pricing under the arrangement. Second, assets of the plan are effectively allocated to specific employers. This is the case even though the insurance policies used by employers H and J have no accessible cash value.
(iii) The facts described in this Example 5 indicate that the arrangement does not satisfy the requirements of section 419A(f)(6) and this section because, at a minimum, the requirement of paragraph (a)(1)(iii) of this section is not satisfied. This arrangement maintains experience-rating arrangements with respect to individual employers because the cost of coverage for each year for any employer participating in the arrangement is based on a proxy for the overall experience of that employer. Under this arrangement employer H's cost of coverage in 2007 is $700 for $1 million of coverage. Although the policy insuring M's life has no cash value accessible to employer H, the accumulation of the excesses of the amounts paid by employer H on behalf of employee M over each year's underlying mortality and expense charges for providing life insurance coverage to employee M provide economic value to employer H (i.e., the ability to purchase future coverage on M's life at a premium that is less than the underlying mortality and expense charges as those underlying charges increase with M's increasing age). Thus, H's cost of coverage for 2007 is based on a proxy for H's overall experience. Accordingly, this arrangement maintains an experience-rating arrangement with respect to employer H.
(iv) This arrangement also maintains an experience-rating arrangement with respect to employer J because it can be expected that for each of the next nine years J will be charged $1,100 for the $1 million of coverage on N's life. Each year, J's cost of coverage will reflect J's prior contributions, so that J's cost of coverage will be based on a proxy for J's overall experience. Accordingly, this arrangement maintains an experience-rating arrangement with respect to employer J. Similarly, this arrangement maintains an experiencing-rating arrangement with respect to each other participating employer. Accordingly, this arrangement maintains experience-rating arrangements with respect to individual employers. This would also be the result if this arrangement maintained an experience-rating arrangement with respect to only one individual employer.
(i) Under Arrangement C, death benefits are provided for eligible employees of each participating employer. Flexible premium universal life insurance policies are purchased to provide the death benefits. Each policy has a face amount equal to the death benefit payable with respect to the individual employee. Each participating employer can make any contributions to the arrangement provided that the amount paid for each employee is at least the amount needed to prevent the lapse of the policy. The amount needed to prevent the lapse of the universal life insurance policy is the excess, if any, of the mortality and expense charges for the year over the policy balance. All contributions made by an employer are paid as premiums to the universal life insurance policies purchased on the lives of the covered employees of that employer. Participating employers S and V each have a 50-year-old employee covered under Arrangement C for death benefits of $1 million, which is the face amount of the respective universal life insurance policies on the lives of the employees. In the first year of coverage employer S makes a contribution of $23,000 (the amount of a level premium) while employer V contributes only $6,000, which is the amount of the mortality and expense charges for the first year. At the beginning of year two, the balance in employer S's policy (including earnings) is $18,000, but the balance in V's policy is zero. Although S is not required to contribute anything in the second year of coverage, S contributes an additional $15,000 in the second year. Employer V contributes $7,000 in the second year.
(ii) Arrangement C exhibits at least two of the characteristics listed in paragraph (c) of this section generally indicating that an arrangement is not a 10 or more employer plan described in section 419A(f)(6). First, assets of the plan are effectively allocated to specific employers. Second, the arrangement does not provide for fixed welfare benefits for a fixed coverage period for a fixed cost.
(iii) Arrangement C does not satisfy the requirements of section 419A(f)(6) and this section because, at a minimum, the requirement of paragraph (a)(1)(iii) of this section is not satisfied. Arrangement C maintains experience-rating arrangements with respect to individual employers because the cost of coverage of an employer participating in the arrangement is based on a proxy for the overall experience of that employer. Pursuant to paragraph (b)(4)(ii) of this section (concerning treatment of flexible contribution arrangements), solely for purposes of determining an employer's cost of coverage, the Commissioner may treat an employer as contributing the minimum amount needed to maintain the coverage. Applying this treatment, H's cost of coverage for the first year of coverage under Arrangement C is $6,000 for $1 million of death benefit coverage, but for the second year it is zero for the same amount of coverage because that is the minimum amount needed to keep the insurance policy from lapsing. Employer H's overall experience at the beginning of the second year of coverage is $18,000, because that is the balance that would have accumulated in the fund if H were the only employer providing benefits under Arrangement C. (The special rule of paragraph (b)(4)(ii) of this section only applies to determine cost of coverage; it does not apply in determining overall experience.) The $18,000 balance in the policy insuring the life of employer H's employee is a proxy for H's overall experience. Employer H can choose not to make any contributions in the second year of coverage due to the $18,000 policy balance. Thus, H's cost of coverage for the second year is based on a proxy for H's overall experience. Accordingly, Arrangement C maintains an experience-rating arrangement with respect to employer H.
(iv) Arrangement C also maintains an experience-rating arrangement with respect to employer J because in each year J can contribute more than the amount needed to prevent a lapse of the policy on the life of its employee and can expect that its cost of coverage for subsequent years will reflect its prior contributions and allocable earnings. Accordingly, Arrangement C maintains an experience-rating arrangement with respect to employer J.
(i) Arrangement D provides death benefits for eligible employees of each participating employer. Each employer can choose to provide a death benefit of either one, two, or three times the annual compensation of the covered employees. Under Arrangement D, the death benefit is payable only if the employee dies while employed by the employer. If an employee terminates employment with the employer or if the employer withdraws from the arrangement, the death benefit is no longer payable, no refund or other credit is payable to the employer or to the employees, and no policy or other property is transferrable to the employer or the employees. Furthermore, the employees are not provided with any right under Arrangement D to coverage under any other arrangement, nor with any right to purchase or to convert to an individual insurance policy, other than any conversion rights the employees may have in accordance with state law (and which provide no additional economic benefit). Arrangement D determines the amount required to be contributed by each employer for each month of coverage by aggregating the amount required to be contributed for each covered employee of the employer. The amount required to be contributed for each covered employee is determined by multiplying the amount of the death benefit coverage (in thousands) for the employee by five-year age bracket rates in a table specified by the plan, which is used uniformly for all covered employees of all participating employers. The rates in the specified table do not exceed the rates set forth in Table I of Sec. 1.79-3(d)(2), and differences in the rates in the table are merely reflective of differences in mortality risk for the various age brackets. The rates in the table are not based in whole or in part on the experience of the employers participating in Arrangement D. Arrangement D uses the amount contributed by each employer to purchase one-year term insurance coverage on the lives of the covered employees with a face amount equal to the death benefit provided by the plan. No employer is entitled to any rebates or refunds provided under the insurance contract.
(ii) Arrangement D does not exhibit any of the characteristics listed in paragraph (c) of this section generally indicating that an arrangement is not a 10 or more employer plan described in section 419A(f)(6). Under Arrangement D, assets are not allocated to a specific employer or employers. Differences in the amounts charged to the employers are solely reflective of differences in risk or rating factors that are commonly taken into account in manual rates used by insurers for the particular benefit or benefits being provided. The arrangement provides for fixed welfare benefits for a fixed coverage period for a fixed cost, within the meaning of paragraph (d)(5) of this section. The cost charged under the arrangement is not unreasonably high for the covered risk of the plan as a whole. Finally, benefits and other amounts payable can be paid, distributed, transferred, or otherwise made available only by reason of the death of the employee, so that there is no nonstandard benefit trigger under the arrangement.
(iii) Nothing in the facts of this Example 7 indicates that Arrangement D fails to satisfy the requirements of section 419A(f)(6) or this section by reason of maintaining experience-rating arrangements with respect to individual employers. Based solely on the facts described above, Arrangement D does not maintain an experience rating-arrangement with respect to any individual employer because for each participating employer there is no period for which the employer's cost of coverage under the arrangement is based, in whole or in part, on either the benefits experience or the overall experience (or a proxy for either type of experience) of that employer or its employees.
(i) The facts are the same as in Example 7, except that under the arrangement, any refund or rebate provided under that year's insurance contract is allocated among all the employers participating in the arrangement in proportion to their contributions, and is used to reduce the employers' contributions for the next year.
(ii) This arrangement exhibits at least one of the characteristics listed in paragraph (c) of this section generally indicating that an arrangement is not a 10 or more employer plan described in section 419A(f)(6). The arrangement includes nonstandard benefit triggers because amounts are made available to an employer by reason of the insurer providing a refund or rebate to the plan, an event that is other than the illness, personal injury, or death of an employee or family member, or an employee's involuntary separation from employment.
(iii) Based on the limited and specific facts described in this Example 8, an employer participating in this arrangement should be able to establish to the satisfaction of the Commissioner that the plan does not maintain experience-rating arrangements with respect to individual employers. A participating employer's cost of coverage is the relationship of its contributions to the death benefit coverage or other amounts payable with respect to that employer, including the employer's portion of the insurance company rebate and refund amounts. The rebate and refund amounts are allocated to an employer based on that employer's contribution for the prior year. However, even though an employer's overall experience includes its past contributions, contributions alone are not a proxy for an employer's overall experience under the particular facts described in this Example 8. As a result, a participating employer's cost of coverage under the arrangement for each year (or any other period) is not based on that employer's benefits experience or its overall experience (or a proxy for either type of experience), except as follows: If the total of the insurance company refund or rebate amounts is a proxy for the overall experience of all participating employers, a participating employer's cost of coverage will be based in part on that employer's overall experience (or a proxy therefor) by reason of that employer's overall experience being a portion of the overall experience of all participating employers. Under the special rule of paragraph (b)(2)(iii) of this section, however, that fact alone will not cause the arrangement to be treated as maintaining an experience-rating arrangement with respect to an individual employer because no employer normally contributes more than 10 percent of the total contributions under the plan by all employers (the rating group). Accordingly, the arrangement will not be treated as maintaining experience-rating arrangements with respect to individual employers.
(i) Arrangement E provides medical benefits for covered employees of 90 participating employers. The level of medical benefits is determined by a schedule set forth in the trust document and does not vary by employer. Other than any rights an employee may have to COBRA continuation coverage, the medical benefits cease when an employee terminates employment with the employer. If an employer withdraws from the arrangement, there is no refund of any contributions and there is no transfer of anything of value to employees of the withdrawing employer, to the withdrawing employer, or to another plan or arrangement maintained by the withdrawing employer. Arrangement E determines the amount required to be contributed by each employer for each year of coverage, and the aggregate amounts charged are not unreasonably high for the covered risk for the plan as a whole. To determine the amount to be contributed for each employer, Arrangement E classifies an employer based on the employer's location. These geographic areas are not changed once established under the arrangement. The amount charged for the coverage under the arrangement to the employers in a geographic area is determined from a rate-setting manual based on the benefit package and geographic area, and differences in the rates in the manual are merely reflective of current differences in those risk or rating factors. The rates in the rate-setting manual are not based in whole or in part on the experience of the employers participating in Arrangement E.
(ii) Arrangement E does not exhibit any of the characteristics listed in paragraph (c) of this section generally indicating that an arrangement is not a 10 or more employer plan described in section 419A(f)(6). Although the amounts charged under the arrangement to an employer in one geographic area can be expected to differ from those charged to an employer in another geographic area, the differences are merely reflective of differences in current risk or rating factors that are commonly taken into account in manual rates used by insurers for medical benefits.
(iii) Nothing in the facts of this Example 9 indicates that Arrangement E fails to satisfy the requirements of section 419A(f)(6) or this section by reason of maintaining experience-rating arrangements with respect to individual employers. Based solely on the facts described above, Arrangement E does not maintain an experience rating-arrangement with respect to any individual employer because for each participating employer there is no period for which the employer's cost of coverage under the arrangement is based, in whole or in part, on either the benefits experience or the overall experience (or a proxy for either type of experience) of that employer or its employees.
(i) The facts are the same as in Example 9, except that the amount charged for the coverage under the arrangement to the employers in a geographic area is initially determined from a rate-setting manual based on the benefit package and then adjusted to reflect the claims experience of the employers in that classification as a whole. The arrangement does not have any geographic area classification for which one of the employers in the classification normally contributes more than 10 percent of the contributions made by all the employers in that classification.
(ii) This arrangement exhibits at least one of the characteristics listed in paragraph (c) of this section generally indicating that an arrangement is not a 10 or more employer plan described in section 419A(f)(6). There is differential pricing under the arrangement because the amounts charged to an employer in one geographic area can be expected to differ from those charged to an employer in another geographic area, and the differences are not merely reflective of current risk or rating factors that are commonly taken into account in manual rates used by insurers for medical benefits.
(iii) Based on the facts described in this Example 10, an employer participating in this arrangement should be able to establish to the satisfaction of the Commissioner that the plan does not maintain experience-rating arrangements with respect to individual employers even though there is differential pricing. Although an employer's cost of coverage for each year is based, in part, on its benefits experience (as well as the benefits experience of the other employers in its geographic area), that does not result in experience-rating arrangements with respect to any individual employer because the employers in each geographic area are a rating group and no employer normally contributes more than 10 percent of the contributions made by all the employers in its rating group. (See paragraph (b)(4)(iii) of this section.)
(i) The facts of Arrangement F are the same as those described in Example 10, except that K, an employer in one of Arrangement F's geographic areas, normally contributes more than 10 percent of the contributions made by the employers in that geographic area.
(ii) For the same reasons as described in Example 10, Arrangement F results in differential pricing.
(iii) Arrangement F does not satisfy the requirements of section 419A(f)(6) and this section because, at a minimum, the requirement of paragraph (a)(1)(iii) of this section is not satisfied. An employer's cost of coverage for each year is based, in part, on its benefits experience (as well as the benefits experience of the other employers in its geographic area) and the special rule for experience-rating by a rating group does not apply to Arrangement F because employer K normally contributes more than 10 percent of the contributions made by the employers in its rating group. Accordingly, Arrangement F maintains experience-rating arrangements with respect to individual employers.
(i) The facts of Arrangement G are the same as those described in Example 10, except for the way that the arrangement classifies the employers. Under Arrangement G, the experience of each employer for the prior year is reviewed and then the employer is assigned to one of three classifications (low cost, intermediate cost, or high cost) based on the ratio of actual claims with respect to that employer to expected claims with respect to that employer. No employer in any classification normally contributes more than 10 percent of the contributions of all employers in that classification.
(ii) For the same reasons as described in Example 10, Arrangement G results in differential pricing.
(iii) Arrangement G does not satisfy the requirements of section 419A(f)(6) and this section because, at a minimum, the requirement of paragraph (a)(1)(iii) of this section is not satisfied. The special rule in paragraph (b)(4)(iii) of this section for rating groups can prevent a plan from being treated as maintaining experience-rating arrangements with respect to individual employers if the mere use of a rating group is the only reason a plan would be so treated. Under Arrangement G, however, an employer's cost of coverage for each year is based on the employer's benefits experience in two ways: the employer's benefits experience is part of the benefits experience of a rating group that is otherwise permitted under the special rule of paragraph (b)(4)(iii) of this section, and the employer's benefits experience is considered annually in redetermining the rating group to which the employer is assigned. Accordingly, Arrangement G maintains experience-rating arrangements with respect to individual employers.
(i) Arrangement H provides a death benefit equal to a multiple of one, two, or three times compensation as elected by the participating employer for all of its covered employees. Universal life insurance contracts are purchased on the lives of the covered employees. The face amount of each contract is the amount of the death benefit payable upon the death of the covered employee. Under the arrangement, each employer is charged annually an amount equal to 200 percent of the mortality and expense charges under the contracts for that year covering the lives of the covered employees of that employer. Arrangement H pays the amount charged each employer to the insurance company. Thus, the insurance company receives an amount equal to 200 percent of the mortality and expense charges under the policies. The excess amounts charged and paid to the insurance company increase the policy value of the universal life insurance contracts. When an employer ceases to participate in Arrangement H, the insurance policies are distributed to each of the covered employees of the withdrawing employer.
(ii) Arrangement H exhibits at least three of the characteristics listed in paragraph (c) of this section generally indicating that an arrangement is not a 10 or more employer plan described in section 419A(f)(6). First, assets are effectively allocated to specific employers. Second, because the amount of the withdrawal benefit (i.e., the value of the life insurance policies to be distributed) is unknown, the arrangement does not provide for fixed welfare benefits for a fixed coverage period for a fixed cost. Finally, Arrangement H includes nonstandard benefit triggers because amounts can be distributed under the arrangement for a reason other than the illness, personal injury, or death of an employee or family member, or an employee's involuntary separation from employment.
(iii) Arrangement H does not satisfy the requirements of section 419A(f)(6) and this section because, at a minimum, the requirement of paragraph (a)(1)(iii) of this section is not satisfied. Pursuant to paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the prohibition against maintaining experience-rating arrangements applies under all circumstances, including employer withdrawals. Arrangement H maintains experience-rating arrangements with respect to individual employers because the cost of coverage for a participating employer is based on a proxy for the overall experience of that employer. Under Arrangement H, the contributions of a participating employer are fixed. The benefits or other amounts payable with respect to an employer include the value of the life insurance policies that are distributable to the employees of that employer upon the withdrawal of that employer from the plan. Thus, the cost of coverage for any period of an employer's participation in Arrangement H is the relationship between the fixed contributions for that period and the variable benefits payable under the arrangement. The value of those variable benefits depends on the value of the policies that would be distributed if the employer were to withdraw at the end of the period. (Each year the insurance policies to be distributed to the employees in the event of the employer's withdrawal will increase in value due to the premium amounts paid on the policy in excess of current mortality and expense charges.) For reasons similar to those discussed above in Example 6, the aggregate value of the life insurance policies on the lives of an employer's employees is a proxy for that employer's overall experience. Thus, a participating's employer's cost of coverage for any period is based on a proxy for the overall experience of that employer. Accordingly, Arrangement H maintains experience-rating arrangements with respect to individual employers.
(iv) The result would be the same if, rather than distributing the policies, Arrangement H distributed cash amounts equal to the cash values of the policies. The result would also be the same if the distribution of policies or cash values is triggered by employees terminating their employment rather than by employers ceasing to participate in the arrangement.
(i)(1) The facts of Arrangement J are the same as those described in Example 13 for Arrangement H, except that--
(1) The facts of Arrangement J are the same as those described in Example 13 for Arrangement H, except that--
(A) Arrangement J purchases a special term insurance policy on the life of each covered employee with a face amount equal to the death benefit payable upon the death of the covered employee; and
(B) there is no benefit distributable upon an employer's withdrawal.
(2) The special term policy includes a rider that extends the term protection for a period of time beyond the term provided on the policy's face. The length of the extended term is not guaranteed, but is based on the excess of premiums over mortality and expense charges during the period of original term protection, increased by any investment return credited to the policies.
(ii) Arrangement J exhibits two of the characteristics listed in paragraph (c) of this section generally indicating that an arrangement is not a 10 or more employer plan described in section 419A(f)(6). First, assets of the plan are effectively allocated to specific employers. Second, the plan does not provide for fixed welfare benefits for a fixed coverage period for a fixed cost because the coverage period is not fixed.
(iii) Arrangement J does not satisfy the requirements of section 419A(f)(6) and this section because, at a minimum, the requirement of paragraph (a)(1)(iii) of this section is not satisfied. Arrangement J maintains experience-rating arrangements with respect to individual employers because the cost of coverage for a participating employer is based on a proxy for the overall experience of that employer. Under Arrangement J, the contributions of a participating employer are fixed. The benefits or other amounts payable with respect to an employer are the one- , two-, or three-times-compensation death benefit for each employee of the employer for the current year, plus the extended term protection coverage for future years. Thus, for any period extending to or beyond the end of the original term of one or more of the policies on the lives of an employer's employees, the employer's cost of coverage is the relationship between the fixed contributions for that period and the variable benefits payable under the arrangement. The value of those variable benefits depends on the aggregate value of the policies insuring the employer's employees (i.e., the total of the premiums paid on the policies by Arrangement J to the insurance company, reduced by the mortality and expense charges that were needed to provide the original term protection, and increased by any investment return credited to the policies). The aggregate value of the policies insuring an employer's employees is, at any time, a proxy for the employer's overall experience. Thus, a participating employer's cost of coverage for any period described above is based on a proxy for the overall experience of that employer. Accordingly, Arrangement J maintains experience-rating arrangements with respect to individual employers.
(i) Arrangement K provides a death benefit to employees of participating employers equal to a specified multiple of compensation. Under the arrangement, a flexible-premium universal life insurance policy is purchased on the life of each covered employee in the amount of that employee's death benefit. Each policy has a face amount equal to the employee's death benefit under the arrangement. Each participating employer is charged annually with the aggregate amount (if any) needed to maintain the policies covering the lives of its employees. However, each employer is permitted to make additional contributions to the arrangement and, upon doing so, the additional contributions are paid to the insurance company and allocated to one or more contracts covering the lives of the employer's employees. In the event that any policy covering the life of an employee would lapse in the absence of new contributions from that employee's employer, and if at the same time there are policies covering the lives of other employees of the employer that have cash values in excess of the amounts needed to prevent their lapse, the employer has the option of reducing its otherwise-required contribution by amounts withdrawn from those other policies.
(ii) Arrangement K exhibits at least two of the characteristics listed in paragraph (c) of this section generally indicating that an arrangement is not a 10 or more employer plan described in section 419A(f)(6). First, assets of the plan are allocated to specific employers. Second, because the plan allows an employer to choose to contribute an amount that is different than that contributed by another employer for the same benefit, the amount charged under the plan is not the same for all participating employers (and the differences in the amounts are not merely reflective of differences in current risk or rating factors that are commonly taken into account in manual rates used by insurers for the particular benefit or benefits being provided), resulting in differential pricing.
(iii) Arrangement K does not satisfy the requirements of section 419A(f)(6) and this section because, at a minimum, the requirement of paragraph (a)(1)(iii) of this section is not satisfied. Arrangement K maintains experience-rating arrangements with respect to individual employers because the cost of coverage for any employer participating in the arrangement is based on a proxy for the overall experience of that employer. Under Arrangement K the benefits with respect to an employer for any year are a fixed amount. For purposes of determining the employer's cost of coverage for that year, the Commissioner may treat the employer's contribution under the special rule of paragraph (b)(4)(ii) of this section (concerning treatment of flexible contribution/arrangements) as being the minimum contribution amount needed to maintain the universal life policies with respect to that employer for the death benefit coverage for that year. Because the employer has the option to prevent the lapse of one policy by having amounts withdrawn from other policies, that minimum contribution amount will be based in part on the aggregate value of the policies on the lives of that employer's employees. That aggregate value is a proxy for the employer's overall experience. Accordingly, Arrangement K maintains experience-rating arrangements with respect to individual employers.
(g) Effective date--(1) In general. Except as set forth in paragraph (g)(2) of this section, this section applies to contributions paid or incurred in taxable years of an employer beginning on or after July 11, 2002.
(1) In general. Except as set forth in paragraph (g)(2) of this section, this section applies to contributions paid or incurred in taxable years of an employer beginning on or after July 11, 2002.
(2) Compliance information and recordkeeping. Paragraphs (a)(1)(iv), (a)(2), and (e) of this section apply for taxable years of a welfare benefit fund beginning after July 17, 2003. [T.D. 9079, 68 FR 42259, July 17, 2003]